Multiple Choice Answers

The primary purpose of the management process is to:
A. develop organizational goals and make logical decisions.
B. organize the various functions in a logical manner.
C. ensure that all employees are working together effectively.
D. achieve organizational goals efficiently and effectively.
Question 2 of 20
Achieving organizational goals efficiently and effectively:
A. is necessary for making logical decisions.
B. is the primary purpose of the management process.
C. ensures that all employees will work together effectively.
D. rarely occurs in private sector organizations.
Question 3 of 20
Based on customer surveys, a manager recognizes that satisfaction is lower than expected. He then calls customers to uncover the source of their dissatisfaction. This represents which function of management?
A. Planning
B. Communication
C. Leading
D. Controlling
Question 4 of 20
How do top managers spend most of their time?
A. Overseeing day-to-day operations
B. Routine administrative tasks
C. Implementing plans of first-line managers
D. Making decisions and creating goals
Question 5 of 20
Dale is Superintendent of Dexter High School. His job requirements are not associated with any particular management specialty. Dale would be working in what functional area?
A. Operations
B. Finance
C. Production
D. Administration
Question 6 of 20
__________ skills are needed for specialized tasks within the organization.
A. Human
B. Organizational
C. Conceptual
D. Technical
Question 7 of 20
Which managerial skill is likely to be especially important to managers who occupy roles such as disturbance handler, negotiator, and resource allocator?
A. Conceptual
B. Technical
C. Interpersonal
D. Analytic
Question 8 of 20
The ability to prioritize work, to work efficiently and to delegate appropriately is a(n) __________ skill.
A. technical
B. time-management
C. conceptual
D. operational
Question 9 of 20
The classical management perspective consists of:
A. scientific management and administrative management.
B. management science and scientific management.
C. behavioral management and the operations management.
D. contemporary management and behavioral management.
Question 10 of 20
The profits or losses generated by a firm are examples of which aspect of systems theory?
A. Outputs
B. Feedback loops
C. Transformation processes
D. Inputs
Question 11 of 20
The __________ environment of a business that manufactures top-of-the-line cabinets includes computer-assisted design software that helps to convert wood and people’s ideas into lovely, functional cabinets.
A. legal
B. sociocultural
C. technological
D. political
Question 12 of 20
BMW and Mercedes are best described as:
A. strategic allies.
B. competitors.
C. customers.
D. regulators.
Question 13 of 20
Which of the following is part of the internal environment of organizations?
A. Employees
B. Regulators
C. Influence groups
D. Customers
Question 14 of 20
An organization’s obligation to protect and enhance the society in which it operates is called:
A. legal responsibility.
B. ethical responsibility.
C. social responsibility.
D. cultural responsibility.
Question 15 of 20
Clothing made in Sri Lanka and sold in the U.S. is an example of:
A. importing/exporting.
B. licensing.
C. a joint venture/strategic alliance.
D. direct investment.
Question 16 of 20
When Honda is allowed to import only 425,000 automobiles into the United States each year by the U.S. government, this is an example of a(n):
A. quota.
B. strategic alliance.
C. joint venture.
D. franchise agreement.
Question 17 of 20
Which of the following represents an economic community?
A. European Union (EU)
B. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
C. United Nations (UN)
D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Question 18 of 20
U S cola producers voluntarily limit the number of beverages that they export to India each year. This is an example of:
A. an export restraint agreement.
B. direct investment.
C. a strategic alliance.
D. a licensing agreement.
Question 19 of 20
France charges taxes on American fruits and vegetables that are sold in France. This is:
A. a joint venture.
B. licensing.
C. an export tariff.
D. an import tariff.
Question 20 of 20
General Mills and Nestlé established Cereal Partners Worldwide to better compete with Kellogg in Europe. This is an example of:
A. global sourcing.
B. a licensing agreement.
C. an export restraint agreement.
D. a joint venture.
Question 1 of 20
Goals set with and by lower-level managers are called:
A. strategic.
B. tactical.
C. developmental.
D. operational.
Question 2 of 20
When Proctor and Gamble compares its capabilities against competitors to find out whether the firm possesses any unique strengths, the firm is determining:
A. a tactical goal.
B. a strategic goal.
C. an operational goal.
D. its distinctive competencies.
Question 3 of 20
Strategic goals are set by:
A. first-line managers.
B. middle managers.
C. top managers.
D. stockholders.
Question 4 of 20
Which of the following outlines the organization’s purpose, assumptions, values, and direction?
A. Mission
B. Purpose
C. Strategic plan
D. Strategic goal
Question 5 of 20
The component of strategy that indicates how the organization intends to allocate resources is:
A. resource deployment.
B. scope.
C. competitive advantage.
D. synergy.
Question 6 of 20
Coca-Cola’s success in global marketing is the result of its distribution system and its marketing communications, which are two of the company’s:
A. organizational weaknesses.
B. environmental strengths.
C. environmental weaknesses.
D. organizational strengths.
Question 7 of 20
There are a lot of companies that make decorative items for the home. Franklin Mint makes decorative gift items that it sells as collectibles. For instance, each decorator plate that it markets is given a number, and only a finite quantity of each plate is manufactured. By use of a(n) __________ strategy, Franklin Mint distinguishes itself from other companies that make decorative items for the home.
A. related diversification
B. focus
C. BCG
D. diversification
Question 8 of 20
__________ is a useful framework for managers to use as they plot business strategy over time.
A. Portfolio approach
B. Product life cycle
C. Environmental SWOT analysis
D. Porter model
Question 9 of 20
Tide laundry detergent, manufactured by Proctor & Gamble, is the number-one selling detergent in the United States, although sales volume has been flat for years. In the U.S., in what stage of the product life is Tide laundry detergent?
A. Growth
B. Decline
C. Focus
D. Maturity
Question 10 of 20
Which of the following is an advantage of unrelated diversification?
A. Stable financial performance over time
B. Reduced overhead costs
C. Specific, detailed knowledge about each individual SBU
D. Synergy
Question 11 of 20
Decisions by managers of Time Warner to sell off Warner Music Group’s DVD and CD manufacturing, printing, packaging, physical distribution, and merchandising business was an example of a(n) __________ decision.
A. programmed
B. satisficing
C. nonprogrammed
D. irrational
Question 12 of 20
“Decision making under risk” means the decision maker:
A. has no data on which to base his or her decision.
B. is risk-averse, avoiding risky investments.
C. knows all the risks involved in the decision.
D. can estimate decision data with some probability.
Question 13 of 20
Bar code scanning computers at checkout have greatly simplified the inventory __________ decisions.
A. nonprogrammed
B. certainty
C. risk
D. programmed
Question 14 of 20
Suppose that a bank manager is trying to decrease turnover of his employees. He wants to develop as many possible courses of action as he can. At what stage of the rational decision-making process is this bank manager?
A. Implementing the chosen alternative
B. Selecting the best alternative
C. Recognizing the decision situation
D. Identifying alternatives
Question 15 of 20
In the classical decision-making model, “optimization” means:
A. implementing two or more alternatives simultaneously.
B. choosing the alternative with the best overall expected outcomes.
C. gathering the most complete information before making the decision.
D. reaching a satisfactory level of performance.
Question 16 of 20
When a plant manager is attempting to find a site for a new plant and selects the first site that he finds that meets the basic requirements for price, utilities, and transportation, which decision-making strategy is this plant manager utilizing?
A. Bounded rationality
B. Escalation of commitment
C. Satisficing
D. Coalition
Question 17 of 20
One advantage of group decision making is:
A. groupthink.
B. compromise.
C. more information and knowledge are available.
D. one person may dominate the group.
Question 18 of 20
A very strong-willed manager, when involved in a group decision, is often able to persuade the rest of the group to do what works best for him. Which disadvantage of group decision making is this group experiencing?
A. Diversity of background
B. Compromise
C. Groupthink
D. Domination by one member
Question 19 of 20
When a plant manager who is trying to reduce turnover of production workers notices that turnover has decreased by 10 percent four months after he instituted a new training program, at which step in the rational decision-making process is this manager?
A. Evaluating the results
B. Identifying alternatives
C. Recognizing the decision situation
D. Selecting the best alternative
Question 20 of 20
Bounded rationality is assumed in:
A. the administrative model.
B. the rational model.
C. the irrational model.
D. decision making under certainty.
4
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 1 of 20
The starting point for all job design activities is determining the level of desired job:
A. specialization.
B. rotation.
C. enlargement.
D. enrichment.
Question 2 of 20
An assembly operation includes four different jobs. Bob spends three weeks on each of these jobs and then starts the cycle over again with the first job of the operation. This is an example of job:
A. specialization.
B. rotation.
C. enlargement.
D. enrichment.
Question 3 of 20
Which of the following alternatives to specialization gives individual workers more to do and keeps each worker on the same job all the time without giving more authority over and responsibility for the work?
A. Job enlargement
B. Job rotation
C. Job enrichment
D. Work teams
Question 4 of 20
According to the job characteristics approach, when task significance is high, workers:
A. do many tasks as part of their job.
B. believe the task is important.
C. perform a complete portion of the total job.
D. have a lot of control over the tasks.
Question 5 of 20
Dell Computer Corporation sells virtually the same personal computers through any one of its three divisions: Personal, Business, and Education. This represents which type of departmentalization?
A. Functional
B. Product
C. Customer
D. Location
Question 6 of 20
__________ is defined as clear and distinct lines of authority among all positions in an organization.
A. Span of control
B. Job rotation
C. Job enrichment
D. Chain of command
Question 7 of 20
A wide span of management results in:
A. a flat organization.
B. many levels of management.
C. a narrow organization.
D. a tall organization.
Question 8 of 20
An organization where power and control are kept at the top levels of management is:
A. specialized.
B. centralized.
C. decentralized.
D. departmentalized.
Question 9 of 20
The process of linking together the activities of the various parts of an organization to promote harmonious movement toward organizational goals is called:
A. centralization.
B. specialization.
C. decentralization.
D. coordination.
Question 10 of 20
Which of the following is characteristic of the U-form design?
A. Low requirement for coordination across departments
B. Least effective for small organizations
C. Responsibility for coordination and integration delegated to lower levels of management
D. Departmentalization based on the kind of work being done
Question 11 of 20
According to the Lewin model, the first step in change is called __________; in this step, individuals who will be affected by the impending change must be led to recognize why the impending change is necessary.
A. unfreezing
B. refreezing
C. freezing
D. change itself
Question 12 of 20
The manager’s role as monitor is essential to which step in the comprehensive approach to change?
A. Recognizing the need for change
B. Understanding how to implement change
C. Setting goals for change
D. Selecting a change technique
Question 13 of 20
Studies of the organization change process found that participation:
A. reduces the need for communication.
B. encourages employees to adopt differing perceptions.
C. increases productivity and cooperation.
D. increases productivity but has no effect on cooperation.
Question 14 of 20
In most change situations there are factors that will make the job of change more difficult and others that seem to ease the change process. The process by which the manager identifies and then eliminates as many of the forces against change as possible is called:
A. facilitation.
B. implementation.
C. force-field analysis.
D. participative development.
Question 15 of 20
When organizational change involves planned alteration of the work processes or work activities the change primarily involves the area of: Â
A. people.
B. technology and operations.
C. social responsibility.
D. strategy.
Question 16 of 20
Reengineering is needed when an organization:
A. experiences entropy.
B. is dominant in its market.
C. changes its technology rapidly.
D. wants to improve employee morale.
Question 17 of 20
When organization development consultants observe the communication patterns and methods of cooperation and conflict resolution in an organization they are using the intervention technique called:
A. technostructural activities.
B. process consultation.
C. team building.
D. coaching and counseling.
Question 18 of 20
The first stage of the organizational innovation process is:
A. growing.
B. applying.
C. launching.
D. developing.
Question 19 of 20
When a large business attempts to revitalize its entrepreneurial spirit through the employment of creative individuals, this is called:
A. intrapreneurship.
B. new venture formation.
C. creativity.
D. entrepreneurship.
Question 20 of 20
A(n) __________ is usually a middle manager who learns about a new product or service idea and becomes committed to it. This manager helps the inventor overcome resistance to change and convinces others to take the innovation seriously.
A. product champion
B. inventor
C. sponsor
D. venture capitalist
5
Question 1 of 20
Those activities directed at attracting, developing, and maintaining an effective workforce are called:
A. human resource management.
B. selection.
C. employee relations.
D. labor relations.
Question 2 of 20
If an organization refuses to hire women as welders, this is an example of:
A. an indirect form of discrimination.
B. affirmative action.
C. a direct form of discrimination.
D. equal employment opportunity.
Question 3 of 20
If an organization uses an employment test that whites pass at a higher rate than African Americans, this is an example of:
A. a direct form of discrimination.
B. employment at will.
C. affirmative action.
D. an indirect form of discrimination.
Question 4 of 20
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act forbids discrimination against workers above which of the following ages?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
Question 5 of 20
Which of the following requires that women and men be paid the same amount for doing the same jobs, assuming their qualifications and experience are equal?
A. Equal Pay Act of 1963
B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
D. Fair Labor Standards Act
Question 6 of 20
The systematic collection and recording of information about jobs in the organization is known as:
A. job evaluation.
B. job analysis.
C. job specification.
D. staffing.
Question 7 of 20
Forecasting personnel needs and availability and setting up programs to match the two are the specific parts of human resource:
A. supervision.
B. development.
C. planning.
D. programming.
Question 8 of 20
Which of the following would probably have the highest content validity?
A. Personality test
B. An assessment center
C. An aptitude test
D. Job posting
Question 9 of 20
Scrap rate, dollar volume of sales, and number of claims processed are all examples of:
A. training methods.
B. predictive validation methods.
C. content validation methods.
D. objective performance appraisal criteria.
Question 10 of 20
When a manager is evaluated by his or her superiors, peers, and subordinates, this is known as:
A. employment at will.
B. 360-degree feedback.
C. recency error.
D. halo error.
Question 11 of 20
In human resource management terminology, the incentive pay an employee receives is referred to as:
A. benefits.
B. compensation.
C. the wage-benefit package.
D. remuneration.
Question 12 of 20
The major difference between wages and salary is:
A. salaries are higher than wages.
B. salaries include benefits while wages do not.
C. low-level employees earn salaries while managers receive wages.
D. wages are based on hours worked while salary is based on contribution to the firm.
Question 13 of 20
The term that refers to a company’s wages in comparison with those of other companies is:
A. wage-structure.
B. salary.
C. compensation.
D. wage-level.
Question 14 of 20
An organization is considered diverse when:
A. managers have been given diversity training.
B. it allows all new applicants to join the organization.
C. its members differ from each other.
D. its makeup matches the makeup of the general population.
Question 15 of 20
A cafeteria benefits plan consists of:
A. allowing employees to choose among a set of optional benefits.
B. providing on-site lunches to employees during the work week.
C. reimbursing employees for meals they buy for clients.
D. paying employees’ wages for work they do during their lunch hour.
Question 16 of 20
Which of the following is a discussion process between union and management that focuses on agreeing to a written contract that will cover all relevant aspects of their relationship?
A. Labor relations
B. Collective bargaining
C. The grievance procedure
D. Certification
Question 17 of 20
The means by which a labor agreement is enforced is the:
A. grievance procedure.
B. union rights clause.
C. management rights clause.
D. union security clause.
Question 18 of 20
Spouses of military members used to complain they could not find jobs because they moved every three years with the military. But with the increased demand for __________ some organizations value the ability to make a relatively short-term commitment by hiring them.
A. temporary workers
B. emergent workers
C. task-oriented employees
D. job-specific employees
Question 19 of 20
The process of determining the relative value of jobs within the organization is known as:
A. job analysis.
B. job evaluation.
C. the wage-level decision.
D. the individual wage decision.
Question 20 of 20
Parking lot attendants for a major corporation earn less than executive vice presidents at the same corporation. This is an example of:
A. an individual wage decision.
B. a wage-structure decision.
C. wage discrimination.
D. wage-level decision.
6
Question 1 of 20
If you accept a position with an organization that promises you advancement opportunities, the organization is providing:
A. competencies.
B. psychological contracts.
C. inducements.
D. tangibles.
Question 2 of 20
A person’s range of interests is captured in the personality trait of:
A. self-efficacy.
B. openness.
C. self-monitoring.
D. risk propensity.
Question 3 of 20
A supervisor who experiments with new ideas, takes a chance with new products, and leads his or her department in new directions has high:
A. locus of control.
B. self-esteem.
C. risk propensity.
D. competencies.
Question 4 of 20
If you admire your CEO but find out there were questionable accounting practices under his watch, you might blame only the CFO because of:
A. selective perception.
B. perception.
C. objective reality.
D. stereotyping.
Question 5 of 20
The extent to which others in the same situation behave in the same way is known as:
A. consistency.
B. consensus.
C. distinctiveness.
D. stress.
Question 6 of 20
Which of the following statements BEST describes the general relationship between stress and performance?
A. As stress increases, performance will decrease.
B. As performance increases, so does stress.
C. As stress increases, performance will increase for a time.
D. As stress increases, job satisfaction will decrease.
Question 7 of 20
__________ thinking allows people to see similarities between situations or events.
A. Differentiated
B. Divergent
C. Convergent
D. Creative
Question 8 of 20
Unions usually bargain for retirement packages and good medical plans. Recently they have negotiated for advance notice of plant closings. What need level from Maslow’s hierarchy do these demands represent?
A. Physiological
B. Esteem
C. Belongingness
D. Security
Question 9 of 20
The theory that assumes that people make choices from among alternative plans of behavior based on their perceptions of the relationship between a given behavior and desired outcomes is __________ theory.
A. two-factor
B. equity
C. reinforcement
D. expectancy
Question 10 of 20
What is the most important idea for managers to remember from equity theory?
A. Over-rewarded employees perform best.
B. Under-rewarded employees perform best.
C. For rewards to motivate employees, employees must perceive them as being fair.
D. Employees must consider their inputs equal to the inputs of their “comparison other.”
Question 11 of 20
Sexual harassment policies and laws spell out the consequences for violation of the rules. What kind of reinforcement procedure is this?
A. Avoidance
B. Extinction
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Punishment
Question 12 of 20
Which of the following reinforcement schedules offers a worker the least incentive to do good work?
A. Fixed-interval
B. Fixed-ratio
C. Variable-interval
D. Variable-ratio
Question 13 of 20
If a credit-card company that hires telemarketers to call prospective customers to try to sell them on a new credit card gives these telemarketers a $2.00 bonus for every fourth application the company receives from their phone solicitation this is an example of which type of reinforcement schedule?
A. Fixed-ratio
B. Fixed-interval
C. Variable-interval
D. Variable-ratio
Question 14 of 20
Which of the following programs applies the concepts of reinforcement theory?
A. Modified workweek
B. Work redesign
C. Behavior modification
D. Attribution theory
Question 15 of 20
A supervisor’s use of coercion also involves the:
A. use of distortion.
B. use of extinction.
C. use of positive reinforcement.
D. loss of leadership.
Question 16 of 20
What approach to identifying a leader are you using if you vote for a politician based on his or her communication skills, intelligence, education, and assertiveness?
A. Fiedler’s contingency
B. Vroom’s decision tree approach
C. Path-goal theory
D. Trait
Question 17 of 20
Which of the following is a situational leadership model?
A. Trait approach
B. Path-goal theory
C. Ohio State studies
D. Leadership Grid
Question 18 of 20
__________ leadership is a contemporary perspective that focuses on a leader’s personality and ability to inspire loyalty and enthusiasm.
A. Charismatic
B. Entrepreneurial
C. Symbolic
D. Integrative
Question 19 of 20
As more companies become multinational corporations the need for __________ leadership has increased.
A. cross-cultural
B. charismatic
C. transformational
D. political
Question 20 of 20
In deciding which Vroom decision tree to use, the leader must consider __________ and the significance of the decision.
A. time
B. the availability of information
C. the decision style used
D. individuals
8
Question 1 of 20
Sales forecasting, economic forecasting, and environmental analysis are examples of the control of:
A. physical resources.
B. human resources.
C. information resources.
D. financial resources.
Question 2 of 20
Equipment control is an important aspect of which area of control?
A. Physical resources
B. Human resources
C. Information resources
D. Financial resources
Question 3 of 20
When classifying controls on the basis of the resources involved, we find that one class of resources is related to the control of all other resource classes as well. Which resource class overlaps all other classes?
A. Physical resources
B. Human resources
C. Financial resources
D. Information resources
Question 4 of 20
A company that carefully evaluates job applicants is using __________ control.
A. screening
B. cybernetic
C. postaction
D. preliminary
Question 5 of 20
What type of control is exercised when assembly line workers check their work as they assemble the components?
A. Screening control
B. Preliminary control
C. Postaction control
D. Human resources control
Question 6 of 20
Which of the following is a characteristic of screening controls?
A. Take place during the transformation process
B. Involve interviewing potential employees
C. Are the same as preliminary controls
D. Determine organizational flexibility
Question 7 of 20
Which of the following financial documents shows a listing of all the organization’s assets and liabilities at a given point in time?
A. Balance sheet
B. Balance sheet budget
C. Income statement
D. Revenue budget
Question 8 of 20
The ratios that assess the ease with which the assets of the organization can be converted into cash are:
A. liquidity ratios.
B. profitability ratios.
C. debt ratios.
D. None of the above
Question 9 of 20
The purpose of bureaucratic control is to:
A. enhance employee participation in the control function.
B. produce performance above minimum acceptable standards.
C. get employee compliance.
D. increase group performance.
Question 10 of 20
Organizations make the decision to have a centralized or decentralized international control system when they are addressing issues of __________ control.
A. operational
B. strategic
C. financial
D. bureaucratic
Question 11 of 20
An organization that transforms resources into an intangible output in order to create time or place utility for its customers is known as a(n) __________ company.
A. outsourcing
B. service
C. manufacturing
D. ISO 9000
Question 12 of 20
Which of the following decisions is likely to be the decision starting point occurring before the other decisions?
A. The capacity decision
B. The product-service mix decision
C. The facilities layout decision
D. The facilities location decision
Question 13 of 20
__________ is the process of managing operations control, resource acquisition and purchasing, and inventory to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness.
A. Supply-chain management
B. Resource management
C. Inventory management
D. Quality control
Question 14 of 20
Which of the eight dimensions of quality refers to a measure of product life?
A. Reliability
B. Durability
C. Serviceability
D. Features
Question 15 of 20
The probability that a DVD player will eject the disk when you push the eject button is an example of which dimension of quality?
A. Aesthetics
B. Features
C. Reliability
D. Serviceability
Question 16 of 20
The starting point for instituting an organizational quality program is:
A. strategic commitment from top managers.
B. changes in operations methods.
C. improving the quality of materials.
D. employing new forms of technology.
Question 17 of 20
Statistical quality control (SQC) is:
A. a computerized quality control monitoring service.
B. a team approach to quality control.
C. useful only in determining completed items to reject.
D. a set of specific statistical techniques used to monitor quality control.
Question 18 of 20
The International Organization for Standardization requires firms to document the impact of operations on the environment. The standards are called ISO:
A. 9000.
B. 2000.
C. 9000 – 2000.
D. 14000.
Question 19 of 20
When an organization produces 100 units of output for 10 hours of direct labor, what is its labor productivity index?
A. 0.1
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 100
Question 20 of 20
The type of statistical quality control that involves testing products as they are being made is known as:
A. total factor sampling.
B. acceptance sampling.
C. in-process sampling.
D. None of the above