Multiple Choice Answers

Question 1 of 20
Which of the following is a component of productivity in the 4-P cycle of continuous improvement?
A. System flexibility
B. Organizational learning
C. Reduced waste and rework
D. Technological advancement

__________ is the process of working with and through others to achieve organizational objectives in an efficient and ethical manner.
A. Organizational manner
B. Sociology
C. Organization theory
D. Management

If Monica wants to be an effective manager, which of the following skills, according to Wilson’s research, should she focus on developing?
A. Vertical communication
B. A monocultural orientation
C. Develop narrow specialty
D. Empowerment and delegation

The nature of interpersonal relationships for 21st-century managers should be which of these?
A. Competitive
B. Judicial
C. Neutral
D. Cooperative

In today’s workplace, __________ are becoming the primary building block of organizations.
A. teams
B. suppliers
C. contingent employees
D. individuals

Which of the following is NOT a landmark in the evolution of understanding and managing people?
A. The human relations movement
B. The total quality management movement
C. The glass ceiling movement
D. The contingency approach to management

Which of the following is a Theory X assumption about people at work?
A. Work is a natural activity.
B. People are capable of self-direction if they are committed to objectives.
C. The typical employee can learn to accept and seek responsibility.
D. Most people prefer to be directed.

In a recent survey of managers from 36 countries by the American Management Association, __________ and __________ ranked as the corporate world’s top two concerns.
A. quality; productivity
B. customer service; quality
C. productivity; employee satisfaction
D. morale; performance

The pioneering work on TQM was done by:
A. Mayo.
B. Deming.
C. Follett.
D. McGregor.

Which approach calls for using management concepts and techniques in a situationally appropriate manner?
A. One best way approach
B. Human relations approach
C. Theory X management approach
D. Contingency approach

The three fundamental layers of organizational culture are:
A. observable artifacts, ethics, and socialization.
B. ethics, socialization, and mentoring.
C. ethics, observable artifacts, and mentoring.
D. observable artifacts, espoused values, and basic underlying assumptions.

At the more visible level, culture represents:
A. espoused values.
B. basic underlying assumptions.
C. ethics.
D. observable artifacts.

The values and norms that are exhibited by employees are called:
A. espoused values.
B. ethical values.
C. socialized values.
D. enacted values.

Which of the following represents the core of organizational culture?
A. Observable artifacts
B. Basic assumptions
C. Ethics
D. Espoused values

According to research, constructive culture is negatively correlated to:
A. job satisfaction.
B. intention to stay at the company.
C. innovation.
D. work avoidance.

According to research, financial performance was higher among companies that had:
A. culture clashes.
B. adaptive and flexible cultures.
C. young managers in top management positions.
D. established cultures with at least 20 years of experienced management team.

The process by which employees learn an organization’s values, norms, and required behaviors is referred to as:
A. mentoring.
B. organizational enculturation.
C. organizational socialization.
D. espoused value system indoctrination.

Which phase of socialization requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust to their work group’s values and norms?
A. Renewal
B. Change and acquisition
C. Anticipatory socialization
D. Encounter
Question 19 of 20
Which phase of socialization requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust to their work group’s values and norms?
A. Renewal
B. Change and acquisition
C. Anticipatory socialization
D. Encounter
Question 20 of 20
According to Kathy Kram, two general functions of mentoring are:
A. career and psychosocial.
B. psychological and social.
C. social and physical.
D. physiological and cognitive.
Question 1 of 20
Which of the following is achieved through formulation and enforcement of policies, rules, and regulations?
A. Division of labor
B. Centralized decision making
C. A common goal
D. Coordination of effort

Historically, managers have maintained the integrity of the hierarchy of authority by adhering to:
A. centralized decision making.
B. a wide span on control.
C. decentralized decision making.
D. the unity of command principle.

The __________ refers to the number of people reporting directly to a given manager.
A. division of labor
B. hierarchy of authority
C. span of control
D. unity of command

A relatively self-sufficient entity is called a(n):
A. open system.
B. unity of command system.
C. closed system.
D. command-and-control system.

Which of the following is a component of a psychosocial subsystem?
A. Attitudes
B. Philosophy
C. Techniques
D. Goal setting

Which dimension of organizational effectiveness relates to inputs rather than outputs?
A. Goal accomplishment
B. Resource acquisition
C. Internal processes
D. Strategic constituencies satisfaction

Which approach is appropriate when powerful stakeholders can significantly benefit or harm the organization?
A. Goal accomplishment
B. Resource acquisition
C. Internal processes
D. Strategic constituencies

__________ organizations are fluid and flexible networks of multitalented people.
A. Mechanistic
B. Organic
C. Centralized
D. Narrow-span

According to Burns and Stalker, when environment was relatively stable and certain, the successful organizations tended to be:
A. organic.
B. centralized.
C. virtual.
D. mechanistic.

Organic organization tends to have __________ communication, where as mechanistic organization tends to have __________ communication.
A. participative; command-and-control
B. downward; two-way
C. command-and-control; participative
D. two-way; participative

The next wave of 80 million people entering the workforce over the next 20 years are dubbed the:
A. Generation X.
B. Net Generation.
C. Generation Y.
D. Generation Z.

The three stages in Lewin’s Change model are:
A. unfreezing, change, and refreezing.
B. evaluating, changing, and giving feedback.
C. planning, affecting, and changing.
D. benchmarking, evaluating, and encouraging action.

Change is stabilized during __________ by helping employees integrate the changed behavior or attitude into their normal way of doing things.
A. unfreezing
B. refreezing
C. benchmarking
D. processing

The three main components of a systems model are:
A. freezing, changing, and refreezing.
B. planning, initiating, and evaluating.
C. analysis, action, and feedback.
D. inputs, target elements of change, and outputs.

Change efforts are more complicated and difficult to manage when they are targeted at the __________ level.
A. organization
B. group
C. individual
D. department

A set of techniques or tools that are used to implement organizational change is referred to as:
A. benchmarking.
B. a strategic plan.
C. a mission.
D. OD.

The education and communication strategy for overcoming resistance to change is commonly used in which of these situations?
A. Where there is inaccurate information and analysis
B. Where people are resisting because of adjustment problems
C. Where someone will clearly lose out in a change
D. Where other tactics will not work or are too expensive
A(n) __________ organization is one that proactively creates, acquires, and transfers knowledge within itself.
A. organic
B. mission-driven
C. learning
D. benchmarked
Question 19 of 20
__________, one of factors that facilitate organizational learning capabilities, reflects accessibility of information and opportunities to observe others.
A. Experimental mind-set
B. Climate of openness
C. Operational variety
D. Concern for measurement
Question 20 of 20
Which mode of learning is a methodological approach that is based on the use of organizational routines?
A. Synthetic
B. Analytic
C. Experimental
D. Structural

Question 1 of 20
Which of the following represents the first stage of the social information processing model?
A. Selective attention/Comprehension
B. Encoding
C. Simplification
D. Storage and Retention

Mental depositories for storing information refer to:
A. schema.
B. cognitive categories.
C. stereotype.
D. attention.

Long-term memory is made up of three compartments:
A. events, semantic, and person.
B. encoding, decoding, and processing.
C. individual, group, and organization.
D. storage, retention, and response.

If a student rates all of his professors average on all dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance, he or she is committing which of these perceptual errors?
A. Self-serving bias
B. Central tendency
C. Contrast effects
D. Halo

__________ are suspected or inferred causes of behavior.
A. Causal attributions
B. Encoding events
C. Personalities
D. Diversity activities

It is important to remember that __________ relates to other people, __________ relates to other tasks, and __________ relates to time.
A. consensus; consistency; distinctiveness
B. distinctiveness; consistency; consensus
C. consensus; distinctiveness; consistency
D. consistency; consensus; distinctiveness

The __________ represents one’s tendency to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure.
A. self-serving bias
B. glass ceiling
C. contrast effects
D. fundamental attribution bias

Which of the following exists at the core of diversity?
A. Personality
B. Perception
C. Attitude
D. Internal dimensions

__________ belongs to the external dimensions of the diversity wheel.
A. Union affiliation
B. Religion
C. Sexual orientation
D. Ethnicity

__________ practices relate to managers’ responsibility to treat diverse employees fairly.
A. Recruitment
B. Development
C. Ethnocentricity
D. Accountability

A belief about one’s own self-worth based on an overall self-evaluation is called:
A. cognitions.
B. self-efficacy.
C. self-esteem.
D. self-concept.

According to Bandura, which is the most potent source of self-efficacy?
A. Support from others
B. Prior experience
C. Emotional state
D. Behavior models

According to field research, there is __________ relationship between high self-monitoring and career success.
A. a positive
B. a negative
C. a neutral
D. an inverse

When a person consciously controls the learning process, he/she is engaging in:
A. self-esteem.
B. self-management.
C. self-efficacy.
D. self-monitoring.

According to the self-management model, three cognitive supports for behavior change, from the person perspective, are:
A. self-contracts, self-talk, and personal goal setting.
B. self-observation data, self-reinforcement, and self-talk.
C. negative cues, positive cues, and symbolic coding.
D. symbolic coding, rehearsal, and self-talk.

Being relaxed, secure, and unworried are characteristics of which of these Big Five Personality dimensions?
A. Emotional stability
B. Locus of control
C. Conscientiousness
D. Agreeableness

Among the Big Five, which dimension had the strongest positive correlation with job performance and training performance?
A. Conscientiousness
B. Emotional stability
C. Openness to experience
D. Agreeableness

People with __________ see themselves as masters of their own fate.
A. an external locus of control
B. an openness to experience
C. an internal locus of control
D. emotional stability
Question 19 of 20
__________ is a learned predisposition toward a given object.
A. Personality
B. Perception
C. Self-concept
D. Attitude
Question 20 of 20
__________ are goal-incongruent.
A. Positive emotions
B. Attitudes
C. Mental abilities
D. Negative emotions

Question 1 of 20
__________ are physiological and psychological deficiencies that arouse behavior.
A. Motivations
B. Abilities
C. Beliefs
D. Needs

Which of the following is a key managerial implication of Maslow’s theory?
A. Adults can be trained to increase their achievement motivation.
B. A satisfied need may lose its motivational potential.
C. Managers should create challenging task assignments or goals.
D. Achievement, affiliation, and power needs can be considered during the selection process for better placement.

Achievement-motivated people share which of these characteristics?
A. A preference for working on tasks of very high difficulty
B. A preference for situations in which performance is due to their effort rather than other factors
C. A desire for less feedback on their successes and failures than low achievers
D. More concern with discipline and self-respect

Achievement-motivated people share which of these characteristics?
A. A preference for working on tasks of very high difficulty
B. A preference for situations in which performance is due to their effort rather than other factors
C. A desire for less feedback on their successes and failures than low achievers
D. More concern with discipline and self-respect

Which of the following is also referred to as horizontally loading the job?
A. Job rotation
B. Job enlargement
C. Mechanistic approach
D. Job enrichment

__________ refers to the extent to which the job affects the lives of other people within or outside the organization.
A. Task identity
B. Skill variety
C. Feedback from job
D. Task significance

Which of the following models propose that satisfaction is a result of met expectations?
A. Need fulfillment models
B. Discrepancies models
C. Value attainment models
D. Equity model

Equity theory is based on __________ theory.
A. goal setting
B. need satisfaction
C. cognitive dissonance
D. motivation-hygiene

__________ justice is defined as the perceived fairness of the process and procedures used to make allocation decisions.
A. Distributive
B. Procedural
C. Interpersonal
D. Equitable

According to Vroom, expectancy refers to which of the following linkages?
A. Performance ® Effort
B. Outcome ® Performance
C. Performance ® Outcome
D. Effort ® Performance

A management system that incorporates participation in decision making, goal setting, and objective feedback is:
A. organization justice.
B. a distributive system.
C. an expectancy system.

According to Locke’s model, goal setting has all of the following motivational mechanisms EXCEPT:
A. goals direct attention.
B. goals regulate effort.
C. goals increase persistence.
D. goals create equity.

According to research, goal difficulty was __________ related to performance.
A. positively
B. negatively
C. not
D. inversely

“SMART” goals stands for:
A. specific, measurable, attainable, results-oriented, and time bound.
B. specific, merit-based, acceptable, revealed, and tested.
C. systematic, measurable, acceptable, real, and two-dimensional.
D. synergistic, moderated, attainable, research-based, and time-tested.

Generally, people tend to perceive and recall __________ feedback more accurately than they do __________ feedback.
A. positive; negative
B. negative; positive
C. negative; downward
D. downward; upward

Which of the following was voted most effective as an incentive pay plan?
A. Individual incentives
B. Group incentives
C. Skill- or knowledge-based pay
D. Profit sharing

Skinner labeled unlearned reflexes or stimulus-response connections as __________ behavior.
A. operant
B. respondent
C. effective
D. normative

Which of the following strengthen behavior?
A. Positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement
B. Punishment and extinction
C. Positive reinforcement and extinction
D. Punishment and negative reinforcement
Question 19 of 20
Making behavior occur less often by ignoring or not reinforcing it refers to:
A. punishment.
B. positive reinforcement.
C. extinction.
D. negative reinforcement.
Question 20 of 20
Random supervisory praise for employees who have been doing a good job is an example of __________ reinforcement.
A. continuous
B. fixed-ratio
C. fixed-interval
D. variable-interval
Formal groups fulfill two basic functions: __________ and __________.
A. organizational; individual
B. moral; motivation
C. teamwork; productivity
D. accomplish tasks; implement complex decisions

The group issue of “Can we do the job properly?” is addressed in which stage of the group development process?
A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Forming
D. Performing

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in Tuckman’s group development model?
A. Storming, Performing, Norming, Forming, and Adjourning
B. Norming, Storming, Forming, Adjourning, and Performing
C. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning
D. Forming, Performing, Norming, Storming, and Adjourning

Expected behaviors for a given position are called:
A. attitudes.
B. roles.
C. values.
D. beliefs.

__________ roles keep the group on track while __________ roles keep the group together.
A. Maintenance; task
B. Initiator; elaborator
C. Task; maintenance
D. Compromiser; follower

Rejection by other group members refers to:
A. groupthink.
B. ostracism.
C. cohesiveness.
D. cross-functionalism.

Katzenbach and Smith define a team as “a __________ number of people with __________ skills who are committed to a common purpose and performance goals.”
A. large; technical
B. small; similar
C. large; complementary
D. small; complementary

Which of the following represent the three dimensions of trust?
A. Actual trust, perceived trust, and feedback trust
B. Perception, personality, and attitude trust
C. Overall trust, emotional trust, and reliableness
D. Individual, group, and team trust

According to research on self-managed teams, self-managed teams have:
A. a significant effect on general attitudes.
B. no effect on productivity.
C. no significant effect on absenteeism and turnover.
D. a negative effect on specifics relating to self-management.

__________ refers to a cohesive in-group’s unwillingness to realistically view alternatives.
A. Cross-functionalism
B. Groupthink
C. Social loafing
D. Ostracism

__________ refers to the idea that decision makers are constrained by a variety of factors.
A. Optimizing
B. Unaided analytic strategy
C. Bounded rationality
D. Conceptual decision style

The __________ represents a decision maker’s tendency to base decisions on information that is readily available in memory.
A. escalation of commitment
B. representative heuristics
C. nominal group technique
D. availability heuristic

__________ is(are) acquired from experiences.
A. Tacit knowledge
B. Tacit heuristics
C. Explicit knowledge
D. Explicit heuristics

People with a(n) __________ style of decision making are efficient, logical, practical, and systematic in their approach to solving problems.
A. conceptual
B. cultural
C. analytical
D. directive

People with which of the following styles have a high tolerance for ambiguity and tend to focus on the people or social aspects of a work situation?
A. Directive
B. Behavioral
C. Delphi
D. Conceptual

The tendency to stick to an ineffective course of action when it is unlikely that the bad situation can be reversed refers to:
A. escalation of commitment.
B. a directive style.
C. satisficing.
D. an aided-analytic approach.

Breakdowns in communication, workplace politics, and organizational inertia that cause organizations to maintain a bad course of action are examples of:
A. psychological and social dominant characteristics.
B. organizational determinants.
C. project characteristics.
D. contextual determinants.

According to research, __________ has a small but significant effect on job performance and a moderate relationship with __________.
A. participation; turnover rate
B. cooperation; job satisfaction
C. participation; job satisfaction
D. cooperation; equity
Question 19 of 20
__________ refers to the process of presenting opinions and gaining agreement to support a decision.
A. The normal group process
B. The nominal group technique
C. Brainstorming
D. Consensus
Question 20 of 20
A group process that anonymously generates ideas or judgments from physically dispersed experts is called:
A. brainstorming.
B. the Delphi technique.
C. logrolling.
D. the nominal group technique.
Question 1 of 20
A natural tendency for evaluating or judging a sender’s message is a __________ barrier.
A. physical
B. personal
C. process
D. semantic

__________ competence is a performance-based index of an individual’s abilities to effectively use communication behaviors in a given context.
A. Communication
B. Feedback
C. Delegation
D. Validity

Research studies indicate that __________ is more effective than __________ in both work-related and consumer contexts.
A. aggressiveness; assertiveness
B. nonassertiveness; aggressiveness
C. assertiveness; aggressiveness
D. nonassertiveness; assertiveness

Experts estimate that what percentage of communication is nonverbal?
A. 10-20 percent
B. 20-40 percent
C. 40-65 percent
D. 65-90 percent

Which of the following research findings on nonverbal behavior is true?
A. Men do more touching during conversation than women do.
B. A smile conveys the same emotion in different countries.
C. Asians are taught to avoid eye contact with superiors and parents in order to show obedience and subservience.
D. Experts estimate that about 98% of every conversation is interpreted through body language.

A person’s characteristic speaking pattern refers to their __________ listening style.
A. active
B. results
C. process
D. linguistic

A physically dispersed task group is called a __________ team.
A. virtual
B. videoconference
C. Webbed
D. Real-time

Which of the following influence tactics is referred to as a “soft” tactic?
A. Consultation
B. Coalition
C. Legitimating
D. Pressure

According to researchers, the three possible outcomes of an influence attempt are:
A. compliance, resistance, and denial.
B. friendship, trust, and commitment.
C. commitment, compliance, and resistance.
D. promotion, transfer, and demotion.

A belief that people should be paid back for their positive and negative acts is part of the __________ principle identified by Cialdini.
A. reciprocity
B. social power
C. expert power
D. coalition

According to research, which basis of power has generally positive effects on work outcomes such as performance, satisfaction, and turnover?
A. Expert and coercive
B. Referent and coercive
C. Reward and coercive
D. Expert and referent

In Randolph’s Empowerment Model, a manager should create autonomy through structure by:
A. clarifying goals and roles collaboratively.
B. centralizing authority.
C. establishing a strict hierarchy.
D. holding performance information at high levels of the organization.

Political maneuvering is triggered primarily by:
A. uncertainty.
B. greed.
C. coalition.
D. social power.

Politically, __________ are people oriented, while __________ are issue oriented.
A. networks; coalitions
B. coalitions; individuals
C. coalitions; networks
D. individuals; coalitions

Leadership is a social influence process in which the leader seeks __________ participation of subordinates in an effort to reach organizational goals.
A. total
B. the mental
C. the voluntary
D. the physical

What did the researchers from Ohio State Studies conclude?
A. Low structure, high consideration is the best style of leadership.
B. High structure, low consideration is the best style of leadership.
C. Moderate structure, low consideration is the best style of leadership.
D. There is no one best style of leadership.

University of Michigan Studies researchers identified which two styles of leader behaviors?
A. Employee-centered and job-centered
B. Task-motivated and relationship-motivated
C. Consideration and initiating structure
D. Directive and supportive

Fiedler’s theory was based on which of these premises?
A. Leaders have one dominant leadership style that is resistant to change.
B. Leaders are born, not made.
C. Situation cannot influence the leadership style.
D. Leaders must be able to modify their style to match the follower readiness.
Question 19 of 20
Situational variables that cause one style of leadership to be more effective than another are also called:
A. contingency factors.
B. readiness factors.
C. transactional leadership styles.
D. in-group exchanges.
Question 20 of 20
According to the LMX model, __________ is a partnership characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking.
A. According to the LMX model, __________ is a partnership characterized by mutual trust, respect, and liking.
in-group exchanges
B. charismatic leadership
C. transactional leadership
D. servant leadership