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1. Which type of system software is designed to help you monitor and configure settings for your digital gear, its operating system, or application software? Database Management Software
Graphics Software
Desktop Publishing Software
Productivity Software
Utility Software
Question 2. 2. Which are the two main classes of software?
Compilers and Utilities
Productivity and Games
System and Application
System and Network
Utilities and Application
Question 3. 3. Which type of application software are Microsoft Word and OpenOffice Writer?
Database
Presentation Software
Spreadsheet
Word Processor
Web Browser
Question 4. 4. Which type of application software are Microsoft Excel, Lotus 123, and OpenOffice Calc?
Database
Presentation Software
Spreadsheet
Word Processor
Web Browser
Question 5. 5. Which is the official term for the process by which a program is placed into a computer so that it can be run or executed?
Configuration
Decompression
Installation
Rendering
Transubstantiation
Question 6. 6. Which type of software is specifically designed to run from removable storage, such as a CD or USB flash drive?
Cloud Computing Software
Distributed Software
Local Software
Portable Software
Web Software
Question 7. 7. Which of the following is NOT an application or utility which is included in Microsoft Windows?
Calculator
Movie Maker
Paint
PowerPoint
WordPad
Question 8. 8. Which type of software license allows the software to be used on all computers at a specified location?
Multiple-User License
Shrink Wrap License
Single User License
Site License
Unlimited Local License
Question 9. 9. Which type of software is a set of instructions that attaches itself to a file, reproduces itself, and spreads to other files, but cannot spread themselves to another computer?
Bot
Computer Virus
Trojan Horse
Worm
Zombie
Question 10. 10. Which type of software is a self-replicating program designed to carry out some unauthorized activity on the user’s computer and has the ability to spread itself from one computer to another?
Bot
Computer Virus
Trojan Horse
Worm
Zombie
Question 11. 11. According to the textbook, what is the cash value of pirated software to date?
$53 Million
$530 Million
$5.3 Billion
$53 Billion
$530 Billion
Question 12. 12. Which technology is used to convert digital desktop publishing documents and images to dots which can they be etched unto a printing plate for printing newsprint?
Electronic Raster Etching (ERE)
Graphic Interchange Filling (GIF)
Image Striping (IS)
Raster Image Processing (RIP)
Van Houten Patterning (VHP)
1. (TCO 3) In a molecule with covalent bonding, which of the following occurs? (Points : 2)
atoms of different metals form bonds
atoms of noble gases are held together by attractions between oppositely charged ions
atoms are held together by sharing electrons
atoms of metals form bonds to atoms of nonmetals
oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrical attractions
Question 2. 2. (TCO 3) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a 3- ionic charge? (Points : 2)
nitrate
sulfate
phosphate
hydroxide
hydrogen carbonate
Question 3. 3. (TCO 3) What is the formula of carbon tetraiodide? (Points : 2)
CI3
C4I
CI4
C2I4
CI
Question 4. 4. (TCO 3) Double and triple bonds form because of which of the following? (Points : 2)
there is at least one hydrogen atom involved in the bond
the atoms involved have high electronegativities
one of the atoms in the molecule has more than eight valence electrons
the ions involved have charges larger than 1
single covalent bonds do not give all of the atoms in the molecule eight valence electrons
Question 5. 5. (TCO 3) The octet rule indicates which of the following? (Points : 2)
all of the noble gases have eight total electrons
all of the shells in an atom hold a maximum of eight electrons
the noble gases react with other compounds to get eight valence electrons
atoms lose, gain, or share valence electrons to have eight valence electrons
all of the Group A elements have eight valence electrons
Question 6. 6. (TCO 3) Calculate the molar mass of magnesium chloride, MgCl2. (Points : 2)
125.9 g
59.8 g
95.2 g
70.0 g
24.3 g
Question 7. 7. (TCO 3) A reaction that releases energy as it occurs is classified as a(n) ________. (Points : 2)
catalyzed reaction
exothermic reaction
decomposition reaction
endothermic reaction
oxidation-reduction reaction
Question 8. 8. (TCO 3) In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance oxidized always does which of the following? (Points : 2)
gives up hydrogen atoms
takes on oxygen atoms
becomes a charged species
shows a gain of electrons
shows a loss of electrons
Question 9. 9. (TCO 3) In the reaction of nitrogen gas (N2) with hydrogen gas (H2) to form ammonia gas (NH3) how many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with two moles of nitrogen?
N2 + 3 H2 –> 2NH3
(Points : 2)
6 moles
10 moles
8 moles
4 moles
2 moles
Question 10. 10. (TCO 3) How many grams of H2 (molar mass = 2.00 g/mole) are needed to produce 1.80 g of water (molar mass = 18.0 g/mole) according to this equation?
2 H2 + O2 –> 2 H2O
(Points : 2)
4.00 g
0.200 g
2.00 g
0.180 g
0.100 g
Question 11. 11. (TCO 3) Balance the following equation:
C5H8 + ? O2 –> 5CO2 + 4H2O
TCO 8) A company keeps 20 days of materials inventory on hand to avoid shutdowns due to materials shortages. Carrying costs average $4,000 per day. A competitor keeps 10 days of inventory on hand, and the competitor’s carrying costs average $2,000 per day. The non-value-added costs for the company are (Points : 5) a. $80,000. b. $40,000. c. $20,000. d. $0.
6. (TCO 8) Unit-based product costing uses which of the following procedures (Points : 5) a overhead costs are traced to departments, then costs are traced to products. b overhead costs are traced to activities, then costs are traced to products. c overhead costs are traced directly to products. d All overhead costs are expensed as incurred.
Please verify following s in bold, if they are correct :
3. (TCO 2) Which of the following costs is a period cost? (Points : 5)
a.Depreciation of factory equipment
b. Transportation-in for material shipments
c. Amortization of a patent for the company’s product
d. Depreciation of office computers
8. (TCO 8) Value-added costs equal standard quantity times (Points : 5)
non-value-added costs.
currently attainable standards.
standard price.
actual price.
Question 9. 9. (TCO 3) The costs included in the cost per equivalent unit using the weighted average method are (Points : 5)
current costs.
beginning work-in-process.
ending work-in-process.
both a and b.
1. How have scientists gained knowledge of Earth’s interior since no one has ever sampled the interior below the crust directly? Explain.
2. What physical clues and evidence prove that the continental landmasses were together 225 million years ago as Pangaea and why do scientists think the continents are drifting?
3. If you were a petroleum geologist searching for oil deposits (derived from ancient biomass) why would you want to know the positioning of these landmasses 225 million years ago?
4. Using a physical Geography textbook, such as Geosystems or a map, name the three lithospheric plates that converge on Japan.
5. The seamount, Loihi, is not yet above sea level. It will eventually break through the surface of the Pacific Ocean to become the newest Hawaiian Island. The seamount is growing taller through summit eruptions at a rate of 2 metres per year. When in
years approximately will the seamount break through the surface of the Pacific Ocean? (Show work i.e. Do not simply give an : add the formulae used to get your ).
6. How can volcanic eruptions become natural disasters? Be specific about the types of events that can significantly affect the environment as well as human population in the vicinity of an eruption.
7. What is the relationship between an epicentre and the focus of an earthquake? (2) You are a radio announcer. An earthquake just happened and you have to announce this event to the public. How will you craft the announcement to capture both the focus and epicentre?
2. (TCO 2) When constructing criteria for a query, you should use (Points : 4)
Question 3. 3. (TCO 2) In Access, query results are displayed in which view? (Points : 4)
Question 4. 4. (TCO 2) Access has __________ data types. (Points : 4)
Question 5. 5. (TCO 2) The command language used with relational databases is (Points :
. 6. (TCO 2) The term cardinality refers to (Points : 4) a count of the total records in a
Question 7. 7. (TCO 2) Validation text (Points : 4)
changes the way text data is formatted.
determines the maximum length of a text field.
requires text data to be inputted correctly.
specifies the error message when a rule is violated.
Question 8. 8. (TCO 2) In Access, the bottom portion of Query Design View that displays the fields and criteria is known as the(Points : 4)
query design grid.
Show Tables dialog.
Simple Query Wizard.
query datasheet.
Question 9. 9. (TCO 6) An action query is (Points : 4)
a select query used to warn users of database changes.
always initiated by a user.
an aggregate query used to summarize field data.
used to add, edit, or delete data in a database.
Question 10. 10. (TCO 6) A make table query (Points : 4)
creates the structure of a table but does not populate the table with records.
is another name for an append query.
selects records from one or more tables and uses them to create a new table.
requires the destination table to exist first.
What as a general rule makes a covenant-not-to-compete legal in an employment contract?
d. All of the above.
Question 2
Which of the following is a false statement?
d. Agreements to form a partnership always must be written under U.S. laws since there could be disagreements between partners otherwise.
Question 3
Great Furniture Company makes and sells furniture. To avoid liability for most implied warranties, their sales agreements should conspicuously note that their goods are sold
a. “as is.”
Question 4
The tort of fraud requires the following except:
c. Breach of the duty of strict ethical honesty in fact.
Question 5
Which of the following is a false statement?
C. The offeror is the party to decide whether to accept the offer and thus make a contract.
Question 6
What third party cannot sue to enforce rights in the original contract?
c. A third party incidental beneficiary
Question 7
Franchise law is:
c. Both federal and state law.
Question 8
The tort of assault and the tort of battery:
c. Can occur independently or together.
Question 9
Which of the following is true regarding the liability of the partners in a limited partnership?
c. The limited partners have limited liability and the general partners have unlimited liability for the partnership debts.
Question 10
Which of the following is not true about international law?
b. The International Court of Justice has the final and complete authority in all international disputes.
Question 11
Which of the following is/are true about the principal agency relationship?
d. All of the above.
Question 12
Which of the following is not a correct statement?
a. The common law of contracts governs all types of contracts in the U.S. without exception.
Question 13
Which statement is FALSE about the Clean Air Act and the Clean Water Act?
b. Both allow the Environmental Protection Agency to set air and water standards and
Question 1
The SAM process is designed to:
Check the systems involved in resource acquisition
Help planners avoid silly accrediting mistakes
Simulate mistakes before they happen
Assess the suitability of materials
Question 2
A curriculum developed by an outside group for use by others is called a:
Peer-reviewed program
Canned program
Independent program
Culturally competent program
Question 3
Start-up dollars are often referred to as seed dollars.
True
False
Question 4
Pilot testing:
Generally takes more resources than it is worth
Should be accomplished before field testingis started
Allows planners to work out any problems before the program is launched
Can be successfully accomplished with any group, whether or not it is like the priority population
Question 5
By different offerings, by limiting the number of people, by location, and by ability are all approaches to:
Piloting a program
Evaluating a program
Phasing in a program
Planning a program
Question 6
When planners are aware of the participants’ identities and have promised not to reveal those identities to others, they are practicing:
Anonymity
Confidentiality
Secrecy
Omission
Question 7
HIPAA:
Has guaranteed patient rights since the early 1900s
Set national standards to protect and guard against misuse of individual health information
Protects health information specialists from being sued
Guarantees that people can obtain the information they need about family health records
Question 8
No one should be allowed to participate in any health promotion program without giving his or her informed consent.
True
False
Question 9
Match the following items with the corresponding definition or appropriate example.
Budget
Break-even analysis
In-kind donation
Variable costs
Fixed costs
A.
Services provided to a program free of charge but for which the program would havve to pay if they were not donated.
B.
The mathematical determination of the point at which the expenses related to providing the program are equal to or less than the revenues generated for or from the program.
C.
Rent, salaries of administrative personnel, insurance costs.
D.
Mechanisms for planning and tools for communicating and refining priorities; projections of dollar amounts that enable the program planner to assess the fiscal feasibility of doing a project.
E.
Copying program handouts, program advertising, refreshments for participants.
Question 10
Which of the following is NOT considered a critical purpose for program evaluation?
Adjusting costs
Assessing quality
Determining effectiveness
Improving quality
Question 11
Determining whether or not a program led to changes in health status is an example of:
Impact evaluation
Summative evaluation
Outcome evaluation
Formative evaluation
Question 12
Monitoring participants’ reactions about program location, time, and speakers is called:
Formative evaluation
Summative evaluation
Outcome evaluation
Impact evaluation
Question 13
The number of people who stopped smoking following a smoking cessation program is a measure of:
Formative evaluation
Outcome evaluation
Process evaluation
Impact evaluation
Question 14
One strength of having an external evaluator is:
Links with the funding source
Familiarity with the program
Objectivity
Less expense
Question 15
Evaluation planning should occur early, while program goals and objectives are being developed.
True
False
Question 16
A process evaluation conducted for the purpose of establishing the maximum possible impact of a health program intervention carried out precisely according to the intervention protocol is which of the following?
Efficacy study
Effectiveness study
Efficiency study
None of the above
Question 17
Which of the following explains the need for process evaluation?
To help identify whether implementation of the program contributed to the program’s failure
To provide operational information to new sites so that the program can be successfully replicated
To meet requirements of funding agencies, specifically regarding demonstrating the extent of program implementation
To provide data upon which to make midcourse corrections in the delivery of the program
All of the above