1. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), AIDS is listed as the _______ main cause of global
2. Mensa Musa was the famed emperor of
3. As of 2008, the population of Australia was 21.3 million, and the population of New Zealand was closer
to ________ million.
4. In sub-Saharan Africa, female genital mutilation is
A. uncommon in Nigeria.
B. rare in Mali.
C. unheard of in Central Africa and Namibia.
D. most common in northern countries of the region.
5. In Australia, most cattle ranching is found in
A. South Australia.
C. New South Wales.
6. A major objective of the South Pacific Forum founded in 1971 was
A. reconciling diverse cultural heritages.
B. expanding the copra trade.
C. identifying and resolving human rights concerns in the region.
D. stopping French nuclear testing in the region.
7. At independence, the most prosperous country of former French Western Africa was
B. Côte d’Ivoire.
8. Moving from coastal to interior regions of sub-Saharan Africa, we discover that the dominant physicalgeographic
A. many coastal inlets.
B. lush rainforest.
C. ascending plateaus.
D. mountainous terrain.
9. Which of the following is true of the Antarctic Treaty System?
A. It was established specifically to enforce ecological regulations.
B. It provides the de facto governance of the continent.
C. It’s actually the Society for the Geographic Exploration of Antarctica.
D. It bans commercial mining in Antarctica.
10. With respect to global connections, association with _______ offers the brightest immediate future for
many African countries.
B. the United States.
D. the European Union.
11. Which statement best characterizes animism?
A. It’s a religion that maintains the futility of human existence.
B. It’s the basis of social status within a tribe.
C. It combines natural, human, and spiritual forces.
D. It’s composed of irrational superstitions that arise in underdeveloped rural communities.
12. During the Cold War, the United States supported the military dictatorship in
D. Democratic Republic of Congo.
13. The natural vegetation regions of sub-Saharan Africa
A. don’t correspond closely to climatic regions.
B. are heavily impacted by human activity.
C. are all characteristic of equatorial latitudes.
D. only correspond to climatic conditions in areas of West Africa.
14. Sudan is omitted from inclusion in the sub-Saharan region because it
A. contains most of the evidence of humanity’s African origins.
B. is politically distinct from other regional countries.
C. doesn’t border the Sahara Desert.
D. is linked to Egypt by the Nile.
15. In the context of European colonization, Portugal controlled Mozambique and
16. Tourism is the _______ industry in the world.
17. Which South African city is a regional hub of commerce and has South Africa’s premier international
C. Cape Town
18. Slum areas called shantytowns occur in _________ major African cities, housing over _________
percent of urban populations.
A. some; 40
B. five major; 50
C. nearly all; 60
D. all; 70
19. The lowlands west of Australia’s eastern mountain range are drained by the Murray-Darling River
system, with its main headwaters in the Great _______ Basin.
End of exam
20. The Great _______ Range, running just inland along Australia’s eastern coast, is that continent’s only
significant mountain chain.
1. One problem when using rigid metal conduit in a residence is that the installation of the conduit may
A. weaken the structure.
B. require an equipment ground.
C. be a fire hazard.
D. be an electrical hazard.
2. The internal area of 2-inch IMC is
A. the same as the internal area of 2-inch EMT.
B. less than the internal area of 2-inch EMT.
C. less than the internal area of 2-inch rigid metal conduit.
D. greater than the internal area of 2-inch rigid metal conduit.
3. One governing factor when determining the minimum size of conduit to be used is the
A. length of the conduit.
B. presence of water.
D. conductor fill.
4. A 10-inch beam is in the path of a conduit run from a junction box which is located 38 inches from the beam. The beam is to be bypassed by a 30-degree offset with the second offset bend occuring at the corner of the beam. At what distances from the outlet box will the two bends be marked on a length of 1-inch EMT?
A. 18 inches and 38 inches
B. 20 1/2 inches and 40 1/2 inches
C. 38 inches and 40 1/2 inches
D. 8 inches and 48 inches
5. If you have a motor that must remain adaptable to several sizes of belts, what is the maximum length of flexible metal conduit you can use before the conduit requires fastening?
A. 10 feet
B. 4 1/2 feet
C. 3 feet
D. 1 foot
6. What is the take-up amount for a stub-up bend using 1-inch IMC?
A. 5 and 5/8 inches
B. 16 and 5/8 inches
C. 11 inches
D. 8 inches
7. Which of the following combinations of bends can be used in a conduit run?
A. One 90-degree, six 45-degree and one 30-degree
B. One 90-degree, three 45-degree, and four 30-degree
C. Two 90-degree, four 45-degree, and one 30-degre
1. Find the area of a triangle with a base of 10 in. and an altitude of 14 in.
A. 24 sq. in.
B. 70 sq. in.
C. 140 sq. in.
D. 280 sq. in.
2. Suppose you’re given the formula R = s + 2t. If you know that s is three times greater than t, how could you rewrite the formula?
A. R = 3(s + 2t)
B. R = 3(s + t)
C. R = 5s
D. R = 5t
3. During a four-week period, you worked the following hours:
Week 1—36 3/8 hr
Week 2—41 1/4 hr
Week 3—41 1/2 hr
Week 4—38 3/8 hr
What is the average number of hours you worked in one week?
A. 38 1/4
B. 38 3/4
C. 38 1/8
D. 39 3/8
4. The expression a = 3b2 + 2 can be written in words as the quantity a is equal to
A. three times the quantity two plus b squared.
B. three times the square root of b plus two.
C. two more than three times the quantity b squared.
D. two plus the square root of three × b.
5. A pipe that is 36 inches long needs to be cut into 21/4 in long pieces. How many pieces would be cut from this length of pipe? (Note: Change 21/4 to an improper fraction before calculating.)
B. 11 and 1/4
6. Calculate the current in the circuit shown in Figure A-1. Use the formula
I = E/R.
A. 0.25 A
B. 4 A
C. 10 A
D. 100 A
FIGURE A-1—Use this circuit schematic to answer question 6.
7. Express the fraction 2/7 as a rounded decimal.
8. The term rate in percent problems refers to the
A. whole amount that’s being considered.
B. part of the whole amount that’s being considered.
C. comparison of one ratio to another.
D. percent of change.
9. Find the value of y in the formula y = 5a – 3b + c, if a = 12, b = 4, and c = 8.
10. You want to apply a weed killer to your lawn. The directions on the bottle call for mixing 3 ounces of the weed killer with 2 gallons of water. The sprayer you have holds 5 gallons. In order to completely fill the sprayer with a proper mixture, how many ounces of weed killer must you use?
11. Fractions can be added and subtracted only if they’re _______ fractions.
12. What is the product of 2/8 and 3/5?
13. Write the decimal 0.006 as a fraction.
14. An electric heater uses 3/5 watts of power each hour. How many watts of power will the heater use in 1/2 hour?
C. 1 and 1/10
D. 1 and 1/5
15. Which one of the following distances is the longest?
A. 3 yards
B. 7 feet
C. 20 inches
D. 50 inches
16. An angle that contains 126 degrees and 32 minutes is a(n) _______ angle.
17. Corrugated Specialties produces boxes of all kinds. During a normal month they manufacture an average of 67,000 shirt-size boxes. During November they’ve been told to increase production by 35%. How many boxes will they produce in November? (Note: This question requires two calculations.)
18. When drawing an angle with a protractor, after you’ve drawn the first side of the angle, your next step is to
A. make a dot marking the angle measurement that you’re drawing.
B. mark the vertex of the angle.
C. draw the second side of the angle.
D. calculate the number of minutes in the angle you’re drawing.
19. Which one of the following formulas correctly expresses the following statement: The number x is equal to another number n plus the square root of 3.
C. x = 3n2
D. x = n + 32
20. If a triangle-shaped machine part has sides of 2 1/2 inches, 3 1/4 inches, and 5 inches, the perimeter of the triangle is
A. 9 1/2 inches.
B. 10 1/8 inches.
C. 10 3/4 inches.
D. 11 3/8 inches.
21. The distance h a body will move in a free fall is expressed by the formula
h = 1/2 gt2. If g = 980 cm per sec2 and t = 20 sec, the distance h is
A. 9,800 cm.
B. 49,000 cm.
C. 196,000 cm.
D. 368,000 cm.
22. Solve the following equation for y: (square root of )
A. y = 14
B. y = 16
C. y = 32
D. y = 64
23. Find the area of a circle with a radius r of 6 feet. Round off your answer to one decimal point. (The formula for the area of a circle is A = p r2 and p should be approximated to four decimal places.)
A. 18.8 sq ft
B. 59.2 sq ft
C. 113.1 sq ft
D. 355.3 sq ft
24. If the length of a room is 20 feet and its width is 12 feet, the perimeter of the floor area is
A. 32 feet.
B. 44 feet.
C. 52 feet.
D. 64 feet.
25. The first step you should take to solve the formula is
A. multiply 3 by 6.
B. cancel 6 into 6.
C. subtract 2 from 3.
D. find the value of 6 squared.
1. A significant trend in law enforcement is the use of contracting
services with individuals or organizations to help a police
department fulfill its service mission. This trend is known as
A. bifurcation. C. accreditation.
B. futuristics. D. privatization.
2. As a supervisor, when evaluating employees, you should
A. personality as well as performance.
B. those that are in your direct line of supervision.
C. only those behavioral actions that are most recent.
D. circumstances as well as behaviors.
3. In a law enforcement environment, area assignments should
be based on
A. requests for service and available data.
B. workloads and officer selections.
C. officer selection only.
D. proportion of workloads.
4. A visual model that shows how the elements of motivated suspect, suitable victim,
and adequate location are required for a crime to occur is called the
A. dog shift. C. quality circle.
B. crime triangle. D. cone of resolution.
5. The decision to use one-officer or two-officer patrol units should be determined by
A. first-line supervisors.
B. community standards.
C. municipal officials.
D. individual agency circumstances.
6. The main purpose for using employee performance evaluations is to
A. reduce the rate of budget increases.
B. maintain control of front-line employees.
C. improve employee performance.
D. restrict employee dissent.
7. In the future, police agencies will be serving communities that will
A. have a much larger proportion of teenagers.
B. include more single-parent families and more senior citizens.
C. demand far fewer police services.
D. have fewer senior citizens.
8. To meet legal requirements, the criteria used in job performance appraisals
A. job related.
B. approved by the federal government.
C. based only on the employee’s past six months of service.
D. approved by the police union.
9. Which type of performance evaluation utilizes a numeric scale for evaluating various
factors related to individual employees and their jobs?
A. BARS C. Overall comparison ratings
B. Composite ratings D. Critical incident ratings
10. Which of the following is one of the main disadvantages of automobile patrols?
A. They’re very expensive.
B. They’re not visible to the community.
C. They’re not flexible for changing job tasks.
D. They provide limited citizen contact.
11. The most important factor contributing to high productivity and morale in a police agency
A. collective intelligence of the patrol division.
B. ability of the chief.
C. quality of management.
D. overall budget.
12. Which of the following is the best action for a police supervisor to take to improve job
performance in employees?
A. Establish individual standards based on the abilities of each individual subordinate.
B. Heavily consider personality when appraising performance.
C. Accompany subordinates in the field periodically to see how well they’re doing.
D. Develop various standards for each job so that individuality can be rated.
13. Job standards, within a police agency, normally
A. make it easier for employees to meet requirements.
B. aren’t necessary for individual performance appraisals.
C. aren’t based on mission objectives.
D. focus on quality issues.
14. Which of the following common methods of patrol would be best in a business district
that falls under a community policing standard?
A. Two-man patrol vehicles C. All-terrain units
B. Foot patrol D. Air patrol
15. In law enforcement, productivity is specifically measured by the
A. conversion of mission into results.
B. effective deployment of patrol divisions.
C. assessment of resources to activity.
D. quality and quantity of services.
16. The basic goal of random patrols is to
A. discourage most nonprofessional criminals.
B. increase the productivity of community service.
C. increase the number of traffic summonses issued.
D. place officers closer to potential incidents or calls for service.
17. Evaluations can be made more objective by
A. using a numerical scale for each dimension.
B. focusing on the personality characteristics of the person appraised.
C. performing a pre-evaluation.
D. using assignment factors.
18. Response time is an important factor when considering arrests at a crime scene,
but an even more important element is the
A. critical element time. C. lag time.
B. dispatch time. D. rapid response time.
19. The technique of self-evaluation is becoming more popular with managers. Which
of the following is one value of the self-evaluation method?
A. It may foster leadership skills.
B. It forces employees to see management’s point of view.
C. It helps to get employees to accept other types of evaluation.
D. It opens the possibility of other rating dimensions.
20. As manager, which of the following is the best method you could use to help an
employee that performs below
1. A reflex, like automatically removing your hand from a hot
stove, involves pain messages sent to the spinal cord by way
of _______ neurons, while the movement of your hand is
controlled by _______ neurons.
A. somatic; sensory
B. sensory; motor
C. somatic; sympathetic
D. motor; sensory
2. By means of introspection, Dr. Marsh attempts to determine
the components of things like perception, thinking, and consciousness.
By contrast, Dr. Smyth wants to understand what
the mind does in producing different kinds of behavior. We
can reasonably assume that Dr. Marsh’s research is mainly
guided by the principles of
A. structuralism. C. functionalism.
B. objectivism. D. Gestalt psychology.
3. Under Weber’s law, we’ll notice a stimulus difference such that it will be a constant
proportion of the intensity of the initial stimulus. Thus, for weight, we’ll notice a
1-ounce difference in a weight of 50 ounces. Weber’s law applies most directly to the
A. sensory adaptation. C. difference threshold.
B. perceived stimulus. D. absolute threshold.
4. Jason argues that the pituitary gland’s only purpose is regulating the activity of other
glands in the body. Barbara maintains that the pituitary gland also regulates growth.
Who is correct?
A. Jason is correct. C. Both are partially correct.
B. Barbara is correct. D. Neither is correct.
5. Among the advanced technologies used to study the brain’s structure and functions,
which one provides detailed three-dimensional images of the brain’s structures and
B. Positron emission tomography
C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
D. Transcranial magnetic stimulation
6. I study a sample of 100 high school students and find that student IQ scores increase
significantly as the level of reported parental income increases. I can conclude from
A. there’s a negative relationship between parental income and children’s IQ scores.
B. students get smarter when their parents earn more money.
C. there’s a positive correlation between parental income and children’s IQ scores.
D. higher parental income causes an increase in children’s IQ scores.
7. Regarding the trichromatic theory of color vision, which statement is most accurate?
A. The theory helps us understand why we see afterimages of different colors.
B. The theory maintains that receptor cells are grouped in pairs, such as black-white.
C. Specialized cells in the retina engage in a process called feature detection.
D. Specialized cells in the retina are sensitive to blue-violet, green, and yellow.
8. You could locate receptor sites involved in transmitting a nerve impulse by finding the
A. myelin. C. synapse.
B. endorphins. D. neural regulators.
9. The left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is more specialized in language functions
and processing information sequentially. The right hemisphere tends to specialize in
spatial perception and distinguishing patterns. These are examples of cortex
A. adaptation. C. evolution.
B. lateralization. D. neuroplasticity.
10. If you adopt the _______ perspective, you’ll reject an emphasis on what goes on in
people’s minds in favor of focusing on measurable behaviors that can be objectively
A. behavioral C. psychodynamic
B. neuroscience D. cognitive
11. In the ear, the basilar membrane and hair cells are found in the
A. oval window. C. cochlea.
B. auditory nerve. D. anvil and stirrup.
12. A clinical experiment is designed in such a way that neither the researchers dispensing
a treatment nor the persons in the experimental or control groups know if they’re
getting a sugar pill or a new drug. This sort of experimental design is employing a/an
A. placebo C. reverse psychology
B. experimenter expectations D. double-blind
13. Regarding taste and smell, which statement is true?
A. So-called supertasters may be inclined to obesity.
B. Women tend to have a better sense of smell than men.
C. People often have a very short memory of smells.
D. Taste buds wear out and are replaced about every 25 days.
14. Agatha maintains that people are capable of freely making voluntary choices. Constance is
mainly focused on how aggression is caused by genetic inheritance. It seems reasonable to
assume that Constance isn’t much interested in environmental factors impacting
behavior while Agatha rejects
A. heredity. C. introspection.
B. determinism. D. mental processes.
15. According to a Gestalt principle called _______, when we’re looking at a crowd of
people, we tend to perceive people grouped close together as belonging to a common
or related group.
A. proximity C. closure
B. simplicity D. expectancy
16. In conducting an experiment, I divide a sample group of 60 children into two groups
of 30 that I call group A and group B. To make sure the two groups are similar in
terms of age, IQ, and so on, I’ll assign people to either group, A or B, using a/an
________ assignment procedure, such as a coin toss, where heads sends a subject to
group A and tails sends a subject to group B.
A. subjective C. independent
B. experimental D. random
17. Which statement is true?
A. Bottom-up processing allows us to fill in the gaps in an incomplete or ambiguous
B. Bottom-up processing is guided by experience, expectations, and motivations.
C. Top-down processing allows us to fill in the gaps in an incomplete or ambiguous
D. Top-down processing is a process of recognizing and processing components of a
18. You’ll need to select a sample that represents a larger group when you’re conducting
A. a case study. C. naturalistic observation.
B. survey research. D. archival research.
19. In the autonomic division of the nervous system, preparing the body for action under
conditions of stress is to the sympathetic division as pupil contraction and uninhibited
digestive processes are to the _______ division.
A. peripheral-somatic C. peripheral-autonomous
B. peripatetic D. parasympathetic
20. Regarding depth perception, which statement is true?
A. Motion parallax is detected because we perceive binocular disparity.
B. Texture gradient is a monocular cue.
C. The change in position of an object relative to the retina is a binocular cue.
D. Experience teaches us to perceive relative size as an indicator of the color of an
21. I’m interested in how human behavior may be genetically inherited from our remote
ancestors, such as chimpanzees. My field of interest is
A. behavioral genetics. C. clinical neuropsychology.
B. chemical psychobiology. D. evolutionary psychology.
22. Rods are to light intensity as cones are to
A. the iris. C. color perception.
B. the retina. D. the optic nerve.
23. In a neuron, the myelin sheath serves to insulate
A. the axon. C. the cell body.
B. dendrites. D. terminal buttons.
24. In my research, I want to compare levels of test anxiety among high school students in
grades 10 and 12. My hypothesis is that seniors will have higher levels of test anxiety than
sophomores. My _______ definition of test anxiety for each person in my sample will be a
self-reported test-anxiety level, marked in a questionnaire as “high,” “moderate,” or “low.”
A. operational C. subjective
B. functional D. theoretical
25. Within the cerebral cortex, the _______ area is found in the occipital lobe.
A. main auditory C. association
B. somatosensory D. visual
1. Which one of the following words is a verb?
A. Maintenance C. Cruel
B. Manufacture D. However
2. Of the following approaches to avoiding sexism in business and
technical writing, which one is likely to be most effective?
A. Avoid references to individuals.
B. Apologize for using he as a generic pronoun.
C. Use plural nouns and pronouns.
D. Use the neutral pronouns it or its.
3. What, if anything, should you do to correct the following sentence?
Our principal problem was that we had less people than necessary to obtain optimum
benefits from the program.
A. Nothing. The sentence is correct as it stands. C. Change less to fewer.
B. Change principal to principle. D. Change optimum to maximum.
4. In the sentence, “The report arrived too late to be of any value to me,” which word is a
A. report C. value
B. late D. me
5. Which one of the following sentences is most likely to engage a reader’s self-interest?
A. You’ll be happy to hear the news.
B. I have some good news to report.
C. There’s some good news to report.
D. My supervisor has told me some good news.
6. Consider the following sentence: “If you don’t file your travel report on time, you can’t
expect a timely reimbursement for expenses.” How does this sentence fail in terms of its effectiveness?
A. It fails to use a positive approach. C. It’s too pompous.
B. It’s too indirect. D. It fails to use inclusive language.
7. In general, on what stage of the writing process should you spend most of your time?
A. Writing your first draft C. Analyzing your audience
B. Revising your material D. Prewriting
8. In the sentence “Although the book was more than 50 years old, it still contained helpful information,” the word Although is a(n)
A. verb. C. adjective.
B. preposition. D. conjunction.
9. Which one of the following pronouns correctly completes this sentence?
The class took _______ examinations in three separate rooms.
A. its C. his
B. their D. your
10. If you want to make your writing personal and direct, which one of the following pronouns should you use?
A. He C. They
B. We D. You
11. Which one of the following subjects takes a plural verb?
A. Carol and Donald C. The children or the teacher
B. Either you or Denise D. Neither the top nor the bottom
12. The part of speech that answers the question “which one” is a(n)
A. preposition. C. adjective.
B. conjunction. D. adverb.
13. What is the best way to avoid misusing words in your business and technical writing?
A. Use only words you know.
B. Keep your sentences short.
C. Think in terms of your reader’s likely vocabulary.
D. Make frequent use of a dictionary.
14. In the sentence “Although Harry was concerned, the report that he wrote was overwhelmingly approved,” what word is the antecedent of the pronoun that?
A. Harry C. wrote
B. report D. approved
15. In the most general terms, your basic objective in writing a business or technical document of any kind is to convey
A. a value. C. meaning.
B. an idea. D. understanding.
16. In the sentence “Do you know whose book is lying on the conference room table?” which word is a preposition?
A. whose C. on
B. lying D. table
17. What type of language should you use if you’re writing to a group of Ph.D.’s?
A. Plain, clear language C. Formal language
B. Technical jargon D. Pompous language
18. One way to make your business or technical writing concrete is to use
A. words that evoke emotions.
B. facts and figures whenever you can.
C. as few words as possible.
D. vivid words to describe your subject.
19. What, if anything, should you do to correct the following sentence?
He has the ability to affect the outcome, but he’s not likely to take that chance.
A. Nothing. The sentence is correct as it stands.
B. Change ability to capacity.
C. Change affect to effect.
D. Change likely to liable.
20. Which one of the following words is an example of a first-person pronoun?
A. She C. We
B. You D. They
1. Because components aren’t always represented by standardized _______, a troubleshooter must
be able to determine a component’s identity by its location or connection to other components in the
A. symbols C. facsimiles
B. figures D. marks
2. When troubleshooting a portion of an industrial process, it’s important to remember that a(n) _______
can cause a good electrical component to appear faulty.
A. process problem C. steady voltage
B. abnormal output D. process control diagram
3. If you’re troubleshooting a lighting system in an industrial setting and no electrical drawing is
available, how should you locate the source of electrical power for the lighting?
A. Call the power company.
B. Short out the conductor to see which breaker trips.
C. Call in another troubleshooter.
D. Follow the conduit path.
4. Before initiating any tests, the troubleshooter should be able to _______ in the system.
A. point to and identify each component
B. operate any piece of equipment
C. energize every component
D. work on running equipment
5. Flash burns, which can result if a short occurs, are prevented by not approaching any closer than the
A. passed approach zone. C. flash prevention zone.
B. flash protection boundary. D. restricted protection boundary.
6. A troubleshooter must master the art of _______ to successfully communicate his or her assessment of
a problem to the individual responsible for the operation of the faulty equipment.
A. self-denial C. sociability
B. interpersonal skills D. customer relations
7. A logical method of approach followed by troubleshooters working on somewhat complex electrical
systems is considered to be ________-based.
A. random C. chance
B. history D. process
8. When comparing chance methods of approach to troubleshooting, the _______-based approach is
somewhat more refined than the random approach.
A. chance C. research
B. history D. session
9. To confirm there’s a closed path in a control circuit, an industrial troubleshooter might employ a
A. chance approach. C. random approach.
B. scale. D. continuity tester.
10. When troubleshooting a complex process-control system, mechanical tasks, such as opening or closing
valves, or adjusting flow, level, or pressure controls, should only be attempted by the
A. system operator. C. electrical troubleshooter.
B. maintenance supervisor. D. plant manager.
11. A positioning robot in an industrial painting process isn’t completing its typical range of motion, though
the robot’s programming hasn’t been modified. A troubleshooter familiar with the robot’s normal behavior
is called in to evaluate the problem. One of the first thngs he does is compare the current operation with
the normal operation. This is an example of a _______ approach to troubleshooting.
A. historical C. process
B. planned D. documented
12. The level of _______ transferred to a person is what can be fatal in an electrical-shock accident.
A. continuity C. resistance
B. current D. ground-fault
13. A troubleshooter is investigating a faulty lighting system in a store. After locating and identifying the
components that may be responsible for the faulty system, the next fundamental step she should follow is
A. replace or repair the components. C. identify the problem.
B. test the components. D. understand the system or equipment.
14. _______ don’t follow the fundamental steps of troubleshooting or the basic methods of approach.
A. Logical troubleshooters C. Systematic approaches
B. Service technicians D. Parts changers
15. An industrial system is rated at 600 V. The system includes a partially exposed terminal block that’s
mounted on a bulkhead. A new electrical apprentice, who isn’t considered to be qualified according to
OSHA’s standards, approaches the energized block. The closest the apprentice should come to the
block is _______ inches.
A. 24 C. 42
B. 36 D. 54
16. When testing for continuity, the conductor being tested provides the _______ to close the circuit between
the tester’s two contact points.
A. energy C. return circuit path
B. voltage drop D. battery power
17. When faced with troubleshooting a complex industrial system, a good troubleshooter knows to
A. eliminate the distraction caused by having one or more operators present.
B. begin by replacing all inexpensive parts directly related to the problem.
C. mentally divide the system into logical sections.
D. first confirm that the system truly doesn’t work by running it.
18. Using electrical meters to measure higher levels of voltage or amperage than their operating limits permit
can destroy the meter and cause
A. the readings to be up to 10 percent too high.
B. damage to the component being tested.
C. excess equipment downtime.
D. injury to the user.
19. While troubleshooting a circuit supplying a circulation pump, the electrician encounters a tripped circuit
breaker. The circuit breaker can be reset, but _______ until all suspect components have been tested
and all defects addressed.
A. components shouldn’t be removed from the system
B. power shouldn’t be restored to the system
C. customers shouldn’t be informed of the blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker
D. a more experienced troubleshooter shouldn’t be called
20. Locating the faulty area requires the troubleshooter to have the ability to identify components as well as
being able to ________ the system into functional zones that can be checked for proper operation.
A. mechanically separate C. physically isolate
B. electrically disconnect D. mentally divide
The principles for supplying evidence in support of a thesis could be represented by an acronym: RSVSRA. According to the information in your text, the two “Rs” could stand for A. revealing and relevant. B. respectful and revealing. C. representative and revealing. D. relevant and representative.
2. Lillian is looking for ideas to write about, and she decides to make a list of everything she can think of that relates to the topic of teenage romance. Which concept best describes Lillian’s strategy? A. brainstorming B. mapping C. Free association D. outlining
3. After Sean was arrested for breaking into a pawnshop, I began to wonder. Why did some kids from my neighborhood end up in trouble while most of us didn’t? I started out with a question: What causes young people to make bad choices? Now, after two year of research, I’ve arrived at the conclusion that there is no simple answer. There is no one reason why good kids go bed, but there are typical reasons. That’s because people learn their values from the people they associate with. So a very big reason for bad behavior is imitating one’s peers. But there are other important factors as well. Kids who get in trouble are often school dropouts. Also, kids being raised by a single mother are more likely to get in trouble than kids raised in an intact family. Substance abuse also plays a role, especially when it comes to alcohol and legal or illegal drugs.
What method of organization is used by the writer?
4. Which of the following titles is mad more effective by alliteration?
Guns: our lethal heritage
What’s in the name?
Ruby, the rose of Roslyn
Now you see it; now you don’t
5. Which of the following statements best identifies a learning style that’s creative, verbal, and independent?
und the time of biological puberty, a child becomes an adult through a ritual anthropologists call a rite of passage. (7) By contrast, in American society, adolescence amounts to a sort of social and cultural limbo. (8) Informally, the end of childhood is often marked by one’s thirteenth birthday. The child is now a “teenager.” (9) More formally, the end of adolescence is marked by legal strictures that vary irrationally. (10) In a given state the age of sexual consent may be 16 for girls and 18 for boys. (11) An 18-year-old may vote or enlist to die for his country, but, until he reaches age 21, he may not legally purchase alcoholic beverages. In the paragraph, the thesis is best suggested
In sentences 3 and 4.
By what the reader decides about the actual nature of adolescence.
Through an implied topic sentence.
In sentence 1 and 3.
16.An active reader who is assigned an essay to read will begin by
Reading the entire essay.
Skimming the entire essay.
Previewing specific parts of the essay.
Researching the subject of the essay.
17.The usual point of view when writing a formal academic essay is
18.As a general rule, where in your essay is it best to place your thesis statement?
In the second or third paragraph of the body of the essay
At the end of the essay, as part of the conclusion
In the first, introductory paragraph of the essay
Anywhere at all, because the best thesis statement is implied, not specified
19.Which of the following is a common error in composing a thesis statement?
You offer an original perspective on a familiar theme
Your thesis statement contains two or more central points
You focus your thesis statement after you begin writing.
Your thesis statement is specific as opposed to general
20.In searching out the key elements as you read an essay, you’re most likely to discover the author’s support for his or her claims or ideas in the
Body of the essay
Carrie owed Charlotte $20,000. Carrie offered Charlotte a promissory note (a negotiable instrument) worth $200,000 upon maturity, which occurred in six months, as payment for the debt. Carrie had actually stolen the promissory note from her friend Samantha. Charlotte probably won’t qualify as a holder in due course because
A. Charlotte didn’t give value for the instrument.
B. Charlotte didn’t take the instrument in good faith.
C. Charlotte should have known the instrument was stolen.
D. the instrument was stolen from Samantha.
2. Ella owed Mark $500. Since Ella didn’t have the money to pay Mark, she asked Mark if he would accept a negotiable instrument, such as a promissory note, as payment for the debt. Mark indicated he would accept a negotiable instrument as payment. Ella wrote out a promissory note in which she agreed to pay Mark $550 in 60 days if she failed to pay him the $500 in cash within the next 30 days. Ella’s promissory note isn’t negotiable because negotiable instrument must
A. be payable at a definite time.
B. state a fixed amount of money.
C. be payable to order or to bearer.
D. give an unconditional promise or order to pay.
3. Don purchased a boat from Randy. Randy told Don that he owned the boat free and clear of all liens, which Randy knew to be false, because he had just put the boat up as collateral on a loan at the bank two weeks earlier. Don issued Randy a negotiable promissory note for $5,000 to pay for the boat. By the time the promissory note came due, the bank had repossessed the boat, making Don aware of Randy’s deception. Don will be able to avoid payment to Randy because there was
A. a failure of consideration. C. some sort of illegality.
B. a breach of contract. D. fraud in the inducement
4. Joey makes a deposit at Hometown Bank in the amount of $500. Joey’s deposit consist of a 4500 check written to him by Ross, who banks with Crosstown Bank. Hometown Bank deposits the check with Friend’s Bank, which in turn sends the check to Crosstown Bank. Which of the following is true about this set of facts?
A. Hometown Bank is the payor bank.
B. Crosstown Bank is the payor bank.
C. Hometown Bank is an intermediary bank.
D. Crosstown Bank is the depository bank.
5. Eric wrote Donna a check for $50. Eric accidentally dated the check 3/1/07, even though it was actually 3/1/08 when he wrote the check. Eric thought that there was $75 in the account, but there was actually only $10 in the account. Which one of the following scenarios is most likely to occur?
A. The bank will not honor the check because it’s stale.
B. The bank will not honor the check because it’s postdated.
C. The bank will honor the check, even though it will result in an overdraft.
D. The bank will honor the check, even though a stop-payment order has been made.
6. Erica writes a $100 check to Sam. Sam takes the check to his bank, endorses the check, and deposits it into his bank. This process is best described as
A. transfer by assignment.
B. taking for value.
C. transfer by negotiation.
D. transfer to a holder in due course.
7. Sara wrote a check to Steven in the amount of $100 to be drawn from her account at Big Money Bank. When took the check to Big Money Bank to be cashed, Big Money refused to pay the check because Sara’s deposit wasn’t made in time to be credited to her account for that day and wouldn’t be available until the next day. Which of the following is true about this turn of events?
A. Sara is liable to Steven for the $100.
B. Sara is not liable to Steven for the $100.
C. Big Money Bank is liable to Sara for the $100.
D. Big Money Bank is liable to Steven for the $100.
8. Joan noticed one day that her bank debit card was missing from her purse. Joan notified her bank immediately. When Joan received her statement the next month, the bank charged her $500 for withdrawals made after the debit card disappeared. Which one of the following laws do the charged violate?
A. Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914
B. Electronic Fund Transfer Act of 1978
C. Banking Act of 1999
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
9. Josie wants to purchase a car at an auction, and needs a check that will serve as the equivalent to cash to pay for the car. Josie should take a __________ check to the auction.
A. traveler’s C. guaranteed
B. certified D. cashier’s
10. Sally borrowed $500 from Burt. Sally signed a note stating that in five years she would pay Burt whatever amount he deemed fair to repay the loan. The note isn’t negotiable, because negotiable instruments must
A. state an unconditional promise or order to pay.
B. state a fixed amount of money.
C. be payable on demand or at a definite time.
D. be payable to order or to bearer.
11. Pete sets up an account with Ben’s Movie Gallery, whereby whenever Pete rents movies at the Movie Gallery, the amount for the movie rental is deducted from Pete’s card account and Ben’s Movie Gallery’s account is credited for that amount. This set of facts is an example of a/an ______ payment system.
A. online C. smart card
B. cyberbanking D. credit card
12. Samantha writes a check to Miranda for $2,500, to be drawn from her account with Mahopani Bank. Miranda deposits the check into her account with Central Bank. Central Bank sends the check to Buffalo Bank, which sends the check to Mahopani Bank for payment. Which of the following is true about this set of facts?
A. Buffalo Bank is an intermediary and collecting bank.
B. Mahopani Bank is an intermediary and collecting bank.
C. Central Bank is the payor bank.
D. Buffalo Bank is the depository bank.
13. Sara enters an agreement with Darryl in which Darryl agrees to purchase a vacuum cleaner from Sara. Darryl signs a valid promissory note in favor of Sara, agreeing to pay $1,500 within 12 months. To close the sale, Sara misleads Darryl into believing that the vacuum cleaner is absolutely guaranteed to remove 100% of all dust particles in the home or he can be released from the promissory note, or get his money back if he has already paid the promissory note in full. In fact, no such money-back guarantee exists, and the vacuum cleaner doesn’t remove 100% of all dust particles in Darryl’s home. Twelve months later, Darryl refuses to pay the balance due on the promissory note. Which one of the following defenses may Darryl successfully raise to avoid payment of the note?
A. Forgery C. Fraud in the inducement
B. Material alteration D. Fraud in the execution
14. Leroy writes a 450 check made payable to “Cash,” and gives the check to Laurie. Which one of the following best describes what has happened?
A. transfer by assignment C. Transfer by negotiation
B. Taking for value D. Transfer to a holder in due course
15. Janice gives Chandler a promissory note made out in her favor, signed by Joey for $1,000. When the note comes due, Joey asserts a personal defense to avoid liability on the note. Chandler isn’t a holder in due course, and thus doesn’t benefit from the protections afforded a holder in due course, because Chandler
A. did not take the note in good faith.
B. should have known a defense existed to the note.
C. should have known the note would be dishonored.
D. did not take the note for value.
16. Jacobs arranged for his utility bill to be paid by automatic draft from his checking account. One month later, Jacob’s utility bill tripled in amount from the month before, even though Jacob knew that he had used less electricity than the month before. Because Jacob believed the utility company his bank, five days before the draft was scheduled to be deducted, to refuse payment on the draft. The bank paid the draft. The bank’s payment likely violated which one of the following laws?
A. Federal Trade Commission Act of 1914
B. Electronic Fund Transfer Act of 1978
C. Banking Act of 1999
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
17. Brenda wrote a check to Kelli for $50, to be drawn from her account at Beverly Bank. Beverly Bank refused to cash the check. Which one of the following correctly states Brenda’s liability in this situation?
A. Brenda is secondarily liable if she is given timely notice of the dishonor.
B. Brenda is primarily liable if she is given timely notice of the dishonor.
C. Brenda is secondarily liable regardless of any notice of the dishonor.
D. Brenda is primarily liable regardless of any notice of the dishonor.
18. Jayla and Jamal enter an agreement in which Jamal agrees to pay Jayla $500 over the next 3 months for a new stereo. Jamal calls Jayla on the phone and promises to pay her the entire $500 no later than 90 days from that date. This agreement fails to constitute a negotiable instrument, because negotiable instruments must
A. be payable on demand or at a definite time.
B. state an unconditional promise or order to pay.
C. state a fixed amount of money.
D. be in writing.
19. Liza purchased a car from Chad, and signed a promissory note in Chad’s favor promising to pay $1,000 for the car within 1 year. Despite Chad’s written and oral promises about the car’s condition. Liza had to have the car in the shop for repairs the entire first year. Liza refused to pay the balance due under the promissory note. Which one of the following is Liza’s best defense to avoid liability?
A. Illegality C. Breach of warranty
B. Fraud in the inducement D. Fraud in the execution
20. Lee offered Beth a promissory note signed by Joe in favor of Lee paying $10,000 in 6 months, in exchange for $1,000 cash. Beth readily accepted the deal. Beth may not be classified as a holder in due course because Beth
A. did not give value for the note.
B. did not take the note in good faith.
C. may have had notice of a defense against the note.
D. may have had notice that the note would be dishonored.
1. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), AIDS is listed as the _______ main cause of global