Multiple Choice Answers

Question 1
The basic difference between a good and a service is a good:
A. provides intangible benefits.
B. can be physically touched.
C. is always less expensive than a corresponding service.
D. generates greater interest among consumers.
 
Question 2 of 20
Delivering the value proposition is also known as:
A. endless chain marketing.
B. situational distribution efficiency.
C. wholesaling.
D. supply chain management.
 
Question 3 of 20
Which of the following is a core aspect of marketing?
A. Satisfying the firm’s wants and needs
B. Creating universal coverage
C. Instilling self-sufficiency
D. Making product, place, promotion, and price decisions
 
Question 4 of 20
Every Christmas season, Anheuser-Busch runs television ads featuring Clydesdale horses in a winter scene. These ads focus on the promotional goal of __________ consumers about the company’s brand.
A. informing
B. persuading
C. reminding
D. entertaining
 
Question 5 of 20
The traditional marketing channel through which consumers find and purchase goods and services is known as:
A. B2B.
B. C2C.
C. D2C.
D. B2C.
 
Question 6 of 20
UPS provides many services beyond package delivery including insurance, supply chain management, e-commerce, and financing. In the process UPS is building:
A. value chain efficiency.
B. transactional support.
C. exchange efficiency.
D. strategic alliances.
 
Question 7 of 20
Which of the following represents a way to build a sustainable competitive advantage using product excellence?
A. Being the first to offer customers desired features, even if competitors can match these.
B. Positioning the product using a clear, distinctive brand image.
C. Having the most features on each model.
D. Focusing on being cutting edge and continually eliminating older features though this may alienate some customers.
 
Question 8 of 20
Product excellence occurs through:
A. customer loyalty.
B. strategic acceptance.
C. branding and positioning.
D. value-based penetration.
 
Question 9 of 20
When conducting a SWOT analysis, in what phase of the strategic marketing process is an organization presently engaged?
A. Planning
B. Implementation
C. Control
D. Segmentation
 
Question 10 of 20
After developing a mission statement, a firm or organization next must perform:
A. relative market share division.
B. a situational analysis.
C. a market penetration strategy analysis.
D. a mission-accomplished ceremony.
 
Question 11 of 20
The first objective in the evaluate performance phase of the marketing planning process is to:
A. determine whether to raise or lower prices.
B. adjust advertising allocations.
C. find ways to cut costs.
D. assess why the performance goals were or were not achieved.
 
Question 12 of 20
E-books, in addition to being an alternative product form, provide __________ value creation through access via the Internet.
A. product
B. place
C. promotion
D. price
 
Question 13 of 20
The four Ps comprise the __________, which is the controllable set of activities that the firm uses to respond to the wants of its target markets.
A. elements of practice
B. internal operation focus
C. needs response mechanism
D. marketing mix
 
Question 14 of 20
When referring to “exchange,” marketers are focusing on:
A. location where products and services are traded.
B. price charged adjusted for currency exchange rates.
C. creating value.
D. the trading of things of value.
 
Question 15 of 20
__________ is communication by a marketer that informs, persuades, and reminds potential customers.
A. Pricing
B. Promotion
C. Placement
D. Product value creation
 
Question 16 of 20
Customer excellence, which can be developed through a strong brand, unique merchandise or superior customer service, results in:
A. savings in promotion.
B. reduced operational costs.
C. aggressive competition.
D. loyal customers.
 
Question 17 of 20
In value-based marketing, promotion communicates the:
A. targeted creative solution.
B. operational excellence.
C. value proposition.
D. relative market value.
 
Question 18 of 20
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a sustainable competitive advantage?
A. Lowering prices
B. Brand name
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Supply chain efficiency
 
Question 19 of 20
Even when big-box discount retailers enter a market, some small, local retailers survive and prosper. These retailers have developed a(n) __________ generating long-term profitability.
A. value-based customer avoidance
B. successful mission-goal statements
C. sustainable competitive advantage
D. market segmentation sufficiency
 
Question 20 of 20
Of the five steps to the strategic marketing planning process, which step usually comes in the MIDDLE of the process?
A. Evaluate performance
B. Define the business mission.
C. Situation analysis
D. Identifying and evaluating opportunities
 
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 1 of 20
Deceptive advertising and promotion of inferior products are examples of __________ ethical issues.
A. business
B. marketing
C. social
D. finance
 
Question 2 of 20
The AMA Code of Ethics does not specifically address issues in regard to:
A. regulators.
B. customers.
C. economically vulnerable segments such as children and the elderly.
D. candidates running for federal offices.
 
Question 3 of 20
Firms with strong ethical climates tend to:
A. make greater utilization of business development consultants.
B. offer more goods and services than firms without strong ethical climates.
C. be more socially responsible.
D. invest more in sales training software.
 
Question 4 of 20
Being socially responsible is generally considered:
A. a good thing to do only when a company is profitable.
B. inappropriate for most firms in today’s market.
C. beyond the norms of corporate ethical behavior.
D. more appropriate for regulators, ethical philosophers and clergy with a special interest in social and corporate behavior.
 
Question 5 of 20
Many corporations are shifting from defined benefit to defined contribution retirement programs. When considering changes to retirement programs, companies should consider the ethical issues primarily affecting:
A. shareholders.
B. employees.
C. customers.
D. marketers.
 
Question 6 of 20
During which phase of the strategic marketing plan would the firm address the question of, “Should the firm be relocating its production to another country?”
A. Planning
B. Implementation
C. Control
D. Evaluation
 
Question 7 of 20
During which phase of the strategic marketing plan would the firm address the question of, “Did our actions have a negative impact on any stakeholder group?”
A. Planning
B. Implementation
C. Control
D. Evolution
 
Question 8 of 20
The Ethical Decision-Making Matrix II:
A. is a realistic guide to performance only when profits are strong and performance evaluations are already positive.
B. is a good tool for personal ethics but fails as a basis for a firm’s actions when faced with real-world issues.
C. will be ineffective unless the questions are answered without masking incongruent situations and facts.
D. places the burden on the firm’s own code of ethics and the actions of senior management.
 
Question 9 of 20
The centerpiece of the Marketing Environment Analysis Framework is:
A. green marketing.
B. competitive intelligence.
C. culture.
D. consumers.
 
Question 10 of 20
One of the goals of value-based marketing is to provide greater value to consumers:
A. at the least profit.
B. using green marketing inflationary currency manipulation.
C. than competitors offer.
D. than consumers can provide for themselves using regional cohorts.
 
Question 11 of 20
The difference between a firm’s immediate marketing environment and its macroenvironment is that the macroenvironment is:
A. external.
B. easier to understand.
C. easier to control.
D. the same as the immediate environment.
 
Question 12 of 20
__________ include dress, symbols, ceremonies and language differences.
A. Demographic manifestations
B. Fads and fashions
C. Generational cohort descriptions
D. Visible nuances of a country’s culture
 
Question 13 of 20
In New England foot-long sandwiches are called “grinders” while in many other parts of the country they are called “subs.” This is an example of a:
A. regional cultural difference.
B. country cultural factor.
C. generational cultural factor.
D. green marketing interpretation.
 
Question 14 of 20
Compared to other groups, the __________ generational cohort is the fastest growing segment of Internet users using e-mail and shopping, investing and banking.
A. Seniors
B. Baby Boomers
C. Generation X
D. Generation Y
 
Question 15 of 20
__________ tend to be individualistic, value leisure time as a high priority, may be a little careless about how the spend their money, and have an obsession with maintaining their youth.
A. Seniors
B. Baby Boomers
C. Generation Xers
D. Generation Ys
 
Question 16 of 20
When inflation increases, marketers need to be concerned about economic impacts including:
A. many retailers suffer seasonal losses as consumers buy fewer gifts.
B. consumers will buy more discretionary items, using extended decision making.
C. all businesses will suffer, and that affects their customers and employees.
D. consumers will buy less food.
 
Question 17 of 20
The many demands on consumers today have made it more difficult for marketers to:
A. grab consumers’ attention.
B. decide what to offer.
C. deliver products just-in-time.
D. differentiate between the needs of Tweens and Baby Boomers.
 
Question 18 of 20
Improved computer storage capabilities, and the manipulation of consumer information has increased consumers’:
A. access to competitive intelligence.
B. privacy concerns.
C. cultural awareness.
D. technological comfort.
 
Question 19 of 20
Compared to consumers in the United States, Europeans are:
A. less ethnically diverse.
B. more demanding of just-in-time material delivery systems.
C. even more green-consumer conscious.
D. less sensitive to environmental concerns.
 
Question 20 of 20
Marketers of cars, appliances, and copiers recognize women:
A. allow men to make most of the purchase decisions.
B. may influence but rarely make the purchase decision on these products.
C. utilize more competitive intelligence (CI) in making decisions than men.
D. make the majority of purchase decisions.
 
Question 1 of 20
Consumers frequently use the Internet during the __________ stage of the consumer decision process.
A. need recognition
B. postpurchase evaluation
C. information search
D. situational factor analysis
 
Question 2 of 20
André was afraid his condominium would look shabby to his future in-laws, so he had it painted just before their visit. André was addressing his __________ risk.
A. psychological
B. financial
C. performance
D. cultural
 
Question 3 of 20
Consumers consider universal, retrieval, and evoked sets during the __________ stage of the consumer decision process.
A. need recognition
B. postpurchase evaluation
C. information search
D. evaluation of alternatives
 
Question 4 of 20
How a product is presented can influence the decision-making process. Along with brand and price, this is known as:
A. a determinant attribute.
B. an evoked set.
C. a decision heuristic.
D. product leverage.
 
Question 5 of 20
A __________ is a need or want that is strong enough to cause the person to seek satisfaction.
A. price
B. motive
C. attitude
D. perception
 
Question 6 of 20
Among the factor affecting the consumer decision-making process is/are __________, the way consumers spend their time and money to live
A. lifestyle
B. life standards
C. the demonstration effect
D. external validation
 
Question 7 of 20
Many Hollywood movie stars were among the first to buy electric and hybrid vehicles. These stars often became __________, influencing other consumers’ behavior.
A. reference groups
B. internal loci of control
C. cultural icons
D. cognitive parameters
 
Question 8 of 20
In most countries, __________ tends to be one of the largest purchasers of goods and services.
A. importers
B. the central government
C. NAICS
D. consumer buying centers
 
Question 9 of 20
After need recognition, a business considers alternatives and comes up with __________ that suppliers might use to develop their proposals to supply the product.
A. derived demand
B. initiator instructions
C. consensus classifications
D. product specifications
 
Question 10 of 20
At many universities, education faculty members were among the first to ask for personal computers. These education faculty were __________ in the buying center.
A. buyers
B. initiators
C. influencers
D. users
 
Question 11 of 20
The size and composition of a business buying center will likely vary depending upon:
A. the size of the meeting space available.
B. the importance of the purchase decision to be made.
C. demography of the target market.
D. influence of the consumer.
 
Question 12 of 20
Most B2B buying situations can be categorized as new buys, modified rebuys, and:
A. significant others.
B. straight rebuys.
C. angular dilemmas.
D. RFPs.
 
Question 13 of 20
The WTO provides all of the following functions EXCEPT:
A. it maintains the international monetary system.
B. it acts as a forum for trade negotiations.
C. it settles trade disputes.
D. it reviews national trade policies.
 
Question 14 of 20
__________ is international trade of goods and services without using currency.
A. Exchange control
B. Countertrade
C. Tariff trading
D. Quota trade
 
Question 15 of 20
The __________ represents the highest level of integration among participating nations, involving both economic and monetary agreements.
A. NAFTA
B. EU
C. GNI
D. ASEAN
 
Question 16 of 20
NAFTA, like other free trade agreements, is limited to trade-related issues such as:
A. labor mobility.
B. monetary union.
C. tariffs and quotas.
D. banking and financial union.
 
Question 17 of 20
When assessing __________, a firm will consider its access to capital, current markets, manufacturing capacity, and proprietary assets.
A. infrastructure
B. competitive vitality
C. internal capabilities
D. market-relevant competencies
 
Question 18 of 20
Many of the best-known American retailers, like KFC and McDonalds, have expanded globally using:
A. franchising.
B. strategic alliances.
C. joint venture.
D. direct investment.
 
Question 19 of 20
Language, customs, culture, and literacy levels significantly affect global __________ strategies.
A. pricing
B. communication
C. logistical
D. investment
 
Question 20 of 20
Limited problem solving usually relies on:
A. past experience more than on external information.
B. situational stimuli and attitudes.
C. external search for information.
D. financial analysis of performance risk.
 
Question 1 of 20
The first step in the segmentation process is to:
A. create a perceptual map.
B. produce a disclosure statement listing the strengths and weaknesses of the firm’s past marketing strategies.
C. clearly articulate the firm’s vision or marketing strategy objectives.
D. articulate the firm’s self-concept.
 
Question 2 of 20
Because marketing is all about creating value for customers, dividing the market based on __________ segmentation can be quite useful.
A. geographic
B. self-actualization
C. psychographic
D. benefit
 
Question 3 of 20
Chain stores often use __________ data to identify other locations with similar demographics and purchasing behavior.
A. geodemographic
B. self-actualization
C. psychographic
D. geographic
 
Question 4 of 20
For a segmentation strategy to be successful, the customers in the segment must react similarly and positively to the firm’s marketing mix. The market segment must be:
A. substantial.
B. perceptive.
C. identifiable.
D. responsive.
 
Question 5 of 20
Market growth, market competitiveness, and market access are all elements the marketer will use when assessing __________ of each potential market segment.
A. substance
B. responsiveness
C. identification
D. profitability
 
Question 6 of 20
__________ involves defining the firm’s marketing mix variables so that target customers have a clear, distinctive, and desirable understanding of the firm’s offerings relative to competitors’ offerings.
A. Processing
B. Perceptualizing
C. Positioning
D. Proportioning
 
Question 7 of 20
A __________ is often used to illustrate the position of a firm’s products or brands in consumers’ minds.
A. mass marketing analysis
B. VALS summary
C. perceptual map
D. loyalty timeline
 
Question 8 of 20
Despite the short-term success of Tiffany & Co.’s effort to gain new customers for life, the appeal to younger less affluent customers alienated the older, more affluent customer base. Tiffany & Co. chose to reconnect with its traditional customer bases and began the difficult task of:
A. segmenting.
B. positioning.
C. strategic course correction.
D. repositioning.
 
Question 9 of 20
Paul subscribes to an Internet service that alerts him whenever other firms in his industry are quoted in the media. Paul is using this type of market research primarily to:
A. provide a link between him and his production center.
B. help him understand the needs of his customers.
C. monitor his competitors.
D. increase profits through the sale of syndicated data.
 
Question 10 of 20
The difference between an MkIS and a market research study is, an MkIS:
A. only uses unstructured questions.
B. is an ongoing process of collecting, analyzing and presenting information.
C. uses observation research while market research uses questionnaires.
D. focuses only on shopping behavior.
 
Question 11 of 20
From charitable giving to medical records to Internet tracking, consumers are more anxious than ever about:
A. secondary data retrieval systems.
B. exploitation of resources by unscrupulous global marketers.
C. the use of data mining by dating services.
D. preserving their fundamental right to privacy.
 
Question 12 of 20
The Marketing Research Process follows five steps, and researchers:
A. may not always go through them in the exact sequence if the situation changes or new information is discovered.
B. should maintain the integrity of the process by following each step sequentially and thoroughly.
C. often collect data before defining the research objectives.
D. will often be prepared to present the results before completing the analysis if they are under a great deal of pressure to meet a deadline or launch.
 
Question 13 of 20
The first question a market researcher should ask when considering a research study is:
A. Who will pay for it?
B. Will the research be useful?
C. When is the due date?
D. What sample size will be needed?
 
Question 14 of 20
Market researchers can skip some steps in the process, but the research should always begin with:
A. focus groups to help refine the questions.
B. finding out what management really intends to decide to avoid doing extra work.
C. defining the objectives and research needs.
D. looking for the newest techniques in data analysis to beat the competition.
 
Question 15 of 20
The objectives of a research project define the type of data needed and:
A. the statistical procedures utilized to redefine the objectives.
B. process of analysis to be employed.
C. the forum in which the data will be presented.
D. the type of research necessary to collect the data.
 
Question 16 of 20
Company sales invoices, Census data, and trade association statistics are examples of:
A. primary data.
B. data mines.
C. secondary data.
D. simplistic data.
 
Question 17 of 20
There are many important marketing research uses for internal data. If detailed customer information is kept over a period of time, the company may be able to construct an important measure of a customer’s profitability known as:
A. customer net worth.
B. customer earning potential.
C. customer lifetime value.
D. primary customer profit.
 
Question 18 of 20
Caroline needs to find information about income and age distribution in Orange County, California. The best source of secondary research of use to Caroline is likely to be:
A. door-to-door surveys.
B. focus group interviews.
C. syndicated data.
D. Census data.
 
Question 19 of 20
Observation, in-depth interviews, and focus groups are all __________ research methods.
A. conclusive
B. data warehousing
C. syndicated marketing
D. exploratory
 
Question 20 of 20
__________ research is a type of quantitative research that manipulates variables to help determine cause and effect.
A. Causal
B. Scientific marketing
C. Manipulative
D. Experimental
 
Question 1 of 20
Consumers judge the benefits the product delivers against the __________ necessary to obtain it.
A. price
B. profit
C. sacrifice
D. total return
 
Question 2 of 20
If a marketer prices their product too low, it may:
A. result in lower costs.
B. signal poor quality.
C. increase contribution per unit.
D. result in inelastic demand.
 
Question 3 of 20
Using “keystoning” as a pricing strategy:
A. maximizes the difference between total cost and total variable cost.
B. avoids having to participate in pure competition.
C. ignores consumers’ sensitivity to changes in prices.
D. allows marketers to estimate substitution cross-price elasticity.
 
Question 4 of 20
Which of the following is NOT one of the Five C’s of pricing?
A. Customers
B. Channel members
C. Cost
D. Collaboration
 
Question 5 of 20
When the media and messages in a promotional campaign are not aligned with the company strategies or when the channels are not appropriate for the selected price levels, it indicates something is wrong with:
A. cost-benefit price ratio.
B. promotional mix.
C. break-even analysis.
D. the pricing strategy.
 
Question 6 of 20
Naomi tells her sales representatives the goal is to generate at least a 20 percent return on investment for all of the industrial building supplies they sell. Naomi is using a __________ pricing strategy.
A. sales orientation
B. target profit
C. target return
D. status quo
 
Question 7 of 20
A __________ strategy involves accurately measuring all the factors needed to predict sales and profits at various price levels.
A. sales orientation
B. target profit
C. target return
D. maximizing profits
 
Question 8 of 20
The fact that millions of consumers are using online search engines for comparison shopping has:
A. reduced overall demand.
B. increased consumers’ price sensitivity.
C. increased the number of oligopoly markets.
D. reduced the contribution per unit cross-pricing elasticity.
 
Question 9 of 20
A demand curve shows the relationship between __________ in a period of time.
A. price and quantity demanded
B. demand and cost
C. price and elasticity
D. profit and price
 
Question 10 of 20
Price elasticity of demand is the ratio of:
A. percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price.
B. percentage change in price divided by percentage change in quantity demanded.
C. change in price divided by change in quantity demanded.
D. change in quantity demanded divided by the change in price.
 
Question 11 of 20
The more substitutes that exist in a market:
A. the lower the price elasticity for each product.
B. the greater the income elasticity for each product.
C. the easier it will be to utilize a status quo price elasticity strategy.
D. the more sensitive consumers will be to changes in the price of a particular product.
 
Question 12 of 20
At the break-even point:
A. contribution per unit is zero.
B. price is maximized.
C. profits are zero.
D. fixed costs are reduced to zero.
 
Question 13 of 20
The break-even point is estimated by:
A. multiplying revenue per unit times the quantity sold.
B. dividing fixed contribution per unit by variable costs.
C. multiplying fixed costs by contribution per unit.
D. dividing fixed costs by contribution per unit.
 
Question 14 of 20
If a 1 percent decrease in price results in more than a 1 percent increase in quantity demand, demand is:
A. conditionally inelastic.
B. price inelastic.
C. price elastic.
D. conditionally elastic.
 
Question 15 of 20
__________ is an attempt by a manufacturer, vendor or supplier to set a minimum possible price, to control the image of the product or dictate the price, which amounts to a legal form of what would otherwise be price fixing.
A. Conditional pricing
B. Controlled pricing support
C. Channel enforcement
D. Retail price maintenance
 
Question 16 of 20
In addition to knowing more about the products, services, manufacturers and retailers Internet users know more about prices. These consumers are becoming more:
A. price insensitive.
B. price observant.
C. price neutral.
D. price sensitive.
 
Question 17 of 20
For marketers to advertise a price as their __________, the Better Business Bureau recommends that at least 50 percent of the sales of a product occur at that price.
A. fixed price
B. zone price
C. regular price
D. leader price
 
Question 18 of 20
__________ pricing tactics lower the price of a product below cost.
A. Fixed
B. Zone
C. Regular
D. Loss leader
 
Question 19 of 20
__________ is the practice of colluding with other firms to control prices.
A. Competitive favoritism
B. Industry tightening
C. Slacking
D. Price fixing
 
Question 20 of 20
Labor, materials, and energy are typically __________ costs.
A. fixed
B. incidental
C. variable
D. inelastic
 
Part 1 of 1 –
Question 1 of 20
Supply chain management systems include manufacturers, warehouses, stores, and:
A. customers.
B. competitors.
C. buying centers.
D. suppliers.
 
Question 2 of 20
__________ is an element of supply chain management that concentrates on the movement and control of the physical products.
A. Dispatcher decision-making
B. Strategic relationship management
C. Logistics management
D. Corporate vertical marketing
 
Question 3 of 20
Manufacturers use wholesalers and retailers because:
A. they have no other choice.
B. they do not cost much.
C. they create value through convenience and lower prices.
D. wholesalers control retailers.
 
Question 4 of 20
In the 1990s before the widespread use of the Internet, the typical, well-organized order-to-delivery process included order creation using a telephone, fax or mail, order processing, credit authorization and warehousing and deliver often took:
A. a month or more.
B. six to eight weeks.
C. up to a week.
D. 15-30 days.
 
Question 5 of 20
Ticketing and marking refers to:
A. quantifying JIT reliability and assessing its impact.
B. booking shipping routes and marking the distribution destination.
C. creating and placing price and identification labels.
D. determining discounts and marking them into the computerized EDI.
 
Question 6 of 20
Typically, manufacturers and retailers exchange business documents through a(n) __________ system.
A. cross-docking Internet
B. electronic data interchange
C. floor-ready intranet
D. vertical conflict reduction
 
Question 7 of 20
CPFR refers to __________ inventory management systems.
A. centralized, planning, factoring, and receiving
B. collection, partnering, franchising, and receiving
C. collaborative, planning, forecasting, and replenishment
D. corporate, partnering, facilitation, and replenishment
 
Question 8 of 20
__________ can improve supply chain efficiency by allowing manufacturers to sell on consignment, which shifts the cost of maintaining inventory from the retailer to the manufacturer, and shifting the time of sales personnel from writing orders to selling new items and developing relationships
A. JIT systems
B. Value-added supply chains
C. The Internet
D. Vendor-managed inventory
 
Question 9 of 20
In a(n) __________ supply chain, none of the participants has any control over the others.
A. cooperative
B. corporate
C. contractual
D. conventional
 
Question 10 of 20
There are a number of different kinds of supply chains, but when there is a great deal of volume and a powerful channel participant, you are likely to find a(n) __________ supply chain.
A. cooperative
B. conventional
C. contractual
D. administered
 
Question 11 of 20
Today, __________ dominate their supply chains.
A. large retailers
B. manufacturers
C. distributors
D. wholesalers
 
Question 12 of 20
Generally, the larger and more sophisticated the channel member, the less likely that they will:
A. use intermediaries.
B. rely on marketing research.
C. use multi-channel marketing.
D. use intensive distribution.
 
Question 13 of 20
__________ are combating competitive pressures by offering fresh food and healthy fast food, tailoring assortments to local marketing, opening locations closer to where consumers work and shop, and adding new services.
A. Warehouse clubs
B. Supercenters
C. Convenience stores
D. Department stores
 
Question 14 of 20
Category killers are also known as:
A. full-line discount stores.
B. category specialists.
C. specialty stores.
D. warehouse clubs.
 
Question 15 of 20
Consumers visiting __________ often comment that they feel like they are on a treasure hunt, searching for a bargain.
A. department stores
B. off-price retailers
C. discount stores
D. lower value stores
 
Question 16 of 20
Retailers use __________ to get customers into their stores.
A. in-store promotions
B. specialty product displays
C. mass media advertising
D. off-price wholesaling
 
Question 17 of 20
For brick-and-mortar retailers, a key ingredient to place decisions is:
A. product placement promotion.
B. convenient locations.
C. private-label places.
D. off-price placement.
 
Question 18 of 20
Benefits of __________ as a channel include matching or exceeding the convenience of catalogs, providing a great deal of information about products, and collecting information about how customers shop.
A. the store
B. mail order
C. direct mail
D. the Internet
 
Question 19 of 20
__________ communities are networks of social shoppers who see an enhanced emotional connection with other participants during an Internet shopping experience.
A. Self-actualizing
B. Virtual
C. Innovator
D. Gen-Y
 
Question 20 of 20
__________ provide a consistent experience for on-line customers who cannot touch and feel merchandise prior to purchasing it.
A. Shopping bots
B. Price guarantees
C. Reduced shipping costs
D. Brands