BAM 515

1. Which of the following would NOT contribute to organizational effectiveness?
a. excellent quality assurance procedures
b. quality employee retention programs
c. superior customer relations processes
d. high prices for all goods and services

2. Considerable risks are involved when managers make decisions MOST LIKELY because the decisions ________.
a. are made under uncertain conditions
b. affect many people
c. produce significant revenue
d. are plagued with faulty judgements

3. In the managerial function of ________, managers encourage and motivate workers to work toward organizational goals.
a. leading
b. organizing
c. planning
d. controlling

4. Which of the following is the BEST description of diversity?
a. different socio-economic backgrounds
b. distinct ethical perspectives shared by many
c. unified business objectives shared across multiple organizations
d. highly skilled workers within a specific discipline

5. David Berry is the manager of a racially diverse department; however, no minorities are in supervisory positions. Therefore, he plans to actively recruit a minority supervisor. Because he is concerned that nonminority employees may oppose his decision, he is MOST LIKELY dealing with a ________.
a. cultural challenge
b. flexibility challenge
c. fairness and justice challenge
d. decision-making and performance challenge

Challenge Examination

6. Rick Ward, human resources manager for May and Simmons Company, is developing a new benefits package that can be customized to provide care for unmarried life partners and
workers caring for aged parents. Such a program would meet the ________ challenge of managing a diverse workforce.
a. sensitivity
b. flexibility
c. fairness
d. performance

7. A specific component of personality that describes particular tendencies a person has to feel, think, and act in a certain way is ________.
a. a mood
b. an ability
c. a trait
d. a behavior

8. Which of the following statements about the Big Five model of personality is TRUE?
a. A person will always have one trait in which they rank highest.
b. A person who ranks high on extraversion is likely to have many social interaction with others.
c. A person who ranks high on agreeableness will rank low on conscientiousness.
d. A person who ranks high in extraversion can rank high or low on any other trait.

9. Dana is an attorney. She is a gifted legal thinker and writer. When her partners bring her a legal problem that they will need to address in court she is almost always able to help them.
However, she refuses to go into court herself. She explains that she simply does not feel comfortable speaking publicly. In which trait does Dana MOST LIKELY rank low?
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. openness to experience

10. High self-monitors would perform especially well in all of the following jobs EXCEPT ________. “`
a. sales
b. consulting
c. spokesperson for a company
d. devil’s advocate on a team
Challenge Examination

11. ________ is the extent to which people have pride in themselves and their capabilities.
a. Self-monitoring
b. Self-esteem
c. Agreeableness
d. Conscientiousness

12. Individuals with Type B personalities are MOST LIKELY to be ________.
a. impatient
b. driven
c. competitive
d. relaxed

13. ________ pertain to fairness, equity, and impartiality in decision-making.
a. Utilitarian values
b. Moral rights values
c. Justice values
d. Equal rights values

14. Laura is a manager at a retail store. She recently found out that the company is facing budget cuts. She was given the option to give all of her employees a 3% pay cut or lay off one employee. If she were using utilitarian values as her guide, which decision would she MOST LIKELY make?
a. give all her employees a 3% pay-cut
b. organize a protest
c. quit the job so she does not have to make a decision
d. lay off one employee

15. Passage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act ________.
a. overrides the need for an organization to have a code of ethics
b. diminishes protections for whistleblowers
c. increases the reporting obligations of public companies
d. instates regular auditing of public companies

16. How a worker feels about his or her job or organization represents the ________ of the worker’s attitude.
a. behavioral component
b. affective component
c. cognitive component
d. temperamental component

BAM 515 Organizational Behavior 10
Challenge Examination

17. What statement BEST describes how situational factors may affect work mood?
a. Only major events and conditions in one’s life affects work mood.
b. Major and minor events and conditions affect one’s work mood.
c. Situational factors do not affect work mood.
d. Workplace incivility is the most important factor of work mood.

18. A manager notices a high amount of workplace incivility in the office. What strategy should the manager employ to BEST combat this?
a. push up work deadlines
b. reprimand rude employees
c. encourage face-to-face conversations
d. beautify the office

19. Individuals who are salient are often perceived in ________ inconspicuous members of a group.
a. more neutral terms than
b. more extreme terms than
c. less extreme terms than
d. the same terms as

20. A ________ is a systematic tendency to use, ignore, or interpret information about a target in a particular way that results in inaccurate perceptions.
a. stereotype
b. bias
c. paradigm
d. schema

21. Travis Randall often boasts of his ability to “size up” candidates interviewing for a new  job in the first 30 seconds of the interview. He notes that the rest of the interview is spent collecting information to prove to his boss why his initial assessment is correct. This is an example of ________.
a. stereotype
b. bias
c. primacy effect
d. schema

Challenge Examination

22. Which of the following is NOT a bias that can have an effect on the attributions people make to their own behaviors or the behaviors of others?
a. fundamental attribution error
b. systematic observational bias
c. actor-observer effect
d. self-serving attributions

23. The ________ occurs when a manager thinks a subordinate’s behavior is due to some innate characteristic rather than to the situation.
a. fundamental attribution error
b. attention deficit syndrome
c. actor-observer effect
d. residual attribution error

24. Fundamental attribution errors MOST LIKELY occur when one ________.
a. takes credit for successes and avoids blame for failures
b. focuses on the actor and ignores the context
c. is unaware of all of the individual factors that influence behavior
d. attributes the behavior of others to external causes

25. When Jennifer Olsen started working at the law firm of Gould, Starnt, and Heffernen, she knew she was one of only a few women at the company who was balancing work and single motherhood. Determined to make her job a success, she worked long hours and sacrificed much time with her child for the good of the firm. Despite her efforts, her productivity, and her high rate of cases won, she knew there were other lawyers at her company who would
always see her as a single mother first and a lawyer second. Which of the following is NOT
TRUE about the perceptions of Jennifer’s co-workers?
a. Jennifer’s coworkers are basing their perceptions on stereotypes of single mothers.
b. Jennifer’s coworkers are calling upon dysfunctional schemas as they perceive her.
c. Jennifer’s coworkers’ perceptions of her are influenced by their knowledge of the fact that she is a single mother.
d. Jennifer’s coworkers are using impression management in order to make themselves look better to the firm owners.
Challenge Examination

26. Despite the fact that she walked into the interview chewing gum, which Dan found very unprofessional, he hired Margaret, in part, because, like him, she was born and raised in Ohio. On her first two or three job performance evaluations, Dan gave her high ratings, even though she was often late and missed many deadlines, because she made a good overall impression, especially compared to her very inadequate co-workers. Which of the following biases has Dan NOT allowed to cloud his judgement when it comes to Margaret?
a. primacy effect
b. contrast effect
c. halo effect
d. similar-to-me effect

27. The intended result of ________ is that once an undesired behavior ceases to be reinforced, its frequency will diminish until it no longer occurs.
a. extinction
b. behavior modification
c. operational intervention
d. shaping

28. According to operant conditioning theory, punishment ________ the probability of an undesired behavior.
a. increases
b. reduces
c. negates
d. eliminates

29. Negative reinforcement ________ the probability of a desired behavior.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. eliminates
d. has no effect on

30. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to contribute to an employee’s level of creativity?
a. internal locus of control
b. intelligence
c. self-esteem
d. structure

31. ________ is all of the information, skills, and expertise that an individual or a group has about the kind of work being performed.
a. Autonomy
b. Situational synergy
c. Task-relevant knowledge
d. Operational awareness

32. According to Peter Senge, which of the following is NOT a key activity central to a learning organization?
a. encouraging low self-efficacy
b. encouraging learning in groups and teams
c. developing complex schemas
d. communicating a shared vision for the organization

33. According to expectancy theory, valence, instrumentality, and expectancy must be ________ in order for an employee to be motivated to perform desired behaviors and to perform them at a high level.
a. zero
b. one
c. high
d. low

34. A factory worker really wants to move up in the corporation. He does his work, stays late, and is always looking for extra ways to help. He gets passed up for promotion after promotion. This will MOST LIKELY affect his ________.
a. instrumentality
b. valence
c. expectancy
d. equity

35. According to Stacy Adams, a ________ is simply another employee or group of employees perceived to be similar to oneself.
a. substitute
b. peer group
c. referent
d. doppelganger

Challenge Examination

36. Barbara Subaru is a secretary with a prestigious law firm who has observed that other secretaries with the firm receive better pay and have better working conditions than she does, even though she is more productive than they are. Equity theory would label this
condition as ________.
a. overpayment inequity
b. referent inequity
c. underpayment inequity
d. imbalance inequity

37. According to equity theory, which of the following actions would an employee NOT take to restore equity?
a. change the inputs for his own work
b. change the inputs or outcomes of the referent
c. change his perceptions of inputs and outcomes
d. change the outputs of his own work

38. Gerald Simmons, a manager for Computers-R-Us, has been studying the equity theory of motivation. In an effort to be equitable, he plans to give the same percentage pay raise to each of his employees who work 40 hours a week. His plan ________.
a. will eliminate previous inequities at the store
b. demonstrates an understanding of the unique inputs of each employee
c. considers that effort and behavior are likely to vary across workers
d. may be a problem for those who feel underpaid

39. After employees are allowed to interact with customers or clients, and made responsible for managing these relationships and satisfying customers, which of the following core job dimensions would NOT increase?
a. task identity
b. skill variety
c. autonomy
d. feedback

40. The three individual differences identified by the job characteristics model that affect the relationships between the core dimensions and the psychological states and the relationships
between the psychological states and the outcomes include ________.
a. skill variety, task identify, and task significance
b. growth-need strength, level of knowledge and skills, and satisfaction with the work context
c. core dimensions, critical psychological states, and growth-need strengths
d. experienced meaningfulness of work, experienced responsibility for work outcomes, and knowledge of results
Challenge Examination

41. According to the social information processing model, the social environment includes all of the following EXCEPT ________.
a. other work group members
b. supervisors
c. books and documentaries
d. employee’s own past behaviors

42. According to the social information processing model, workers’ past behaviors will MOST LIKELY affect ________.
a. how they view their current jobs and work outcomes
b. how they currently view past experiences
c. their extrinsic motivation
d. their future earnings potential

43. Tom Siegmund joined Chrismer and Park Co. as a security guard 30 years ago and after many years of hard work is now the company’s security manager. Tom has received several job offers from other companies over the years, but has always chosen to stay with Chrismer and Park. Jesse Black is also a 30-year veteran who works as a clerk at Chrismer and Park. Tom and Jesse see each other only at the annual veteran’s awards ceremony. This year, Jesse told Tom how unhappy he was in his work, but that he couldn’t do anything about it because he had never received a job offer from another company. According to social information processing theory, if all other things are equal, Tom’s job satisfaction is MOST LIKELY ________.
a. the same as Jesse’s, as they both joined the company at the same time
b. higher than Jesse’s, as Tom is a manager and Jesse is a clerk
c. higher than Jesse’s, based on Tom’s past choices and personal sacrifices
d. less than Jesse’s, because Tom has more responsibility

44. ________ advocates job simplification and job specialization, and its key goal is maximizing performance.
a. Job enrichment
b. Job enhancement
c. Scientific management
d. The job characteristics model

45. A doctor is asked to improve her relationship with her patients. She usually has little time to spend with them due to other obligations of her job. She is also expected to take on more
patients because another doctor is taking an extended leave. She will most MOST LIKELY feel ________.
a. role conflict
b. underload
c. overload
d. role ambiguity

BAM 515 Organizational Behavior 16
Challenge Examination

46. ________ is the uncertainty that occurs when employees are not sure about what is expected of them and how they should perform their jobs.
a. Role ambiguity
b. Role conflict
c. Role distress
d. Role uncertainty

47. Sara Chan is unsure about what is expected of her and how she should perform her job. Therefore, she is experiencing ________.
a. role ambiguity
b. role conflict
c. work-life balance stress
d. underload

48. ________ relates to the steps people take to deal with and control their stressful feelings.
a. Retroactive coping
b. Problem-focused coping
c. Solution-focused coping
d. Emotion-focused coping

49. When ________ is successful, stressful feelings generated by threats and opportunities do not get out of hand.
a. emotion-focused coping
b. problem-focused coping
c. solution-focused coping
d. psycho-social coping

50. One technique for dealing with stress is to manage time better. This requires ________.
a. coming in earlier and leaving later
b. making and prioritizing lists of tasks
c. setting time limits for interactions with your boss
d. not attending meetings

51. Members of an organization form ________ when they have a common goal or objective that they are trying to achieve by uniting their efforts.
a. interest groups
b. friendship groups
c. cross-functional teams
d. self-managed work teams
Challenge Examination

52. The stages of group development include all of the following EXCEPT the ________ stage.
a. norming
b. adjourning
c. forming
d. conforming

53. The ________ stage of group development is characterized by considerable conflict.
a. norming
b. adjourning
c. forming
d. storming

54. Role ________ may be formally specified in a written job description or emerge informally over time as members work out methods for getting the job done.
a. taking
b. norming
c. relationships
d. negotiations

55. The performance of responsibilities that are associated with an assigned role is referred to as role ________.
a. taking
b. relating
c. norming
d. occupation

56. Which of the following is NOT an advantage that rules can offer for controlling and managing the behavior and performance of group members?
a. They help ensure the performance of behaviors beneficial to organizational effectiveness.
b. They allow comparison of actual behaviors to behaviors specified by the rules.
c. They eliminate the impact of group norms.
d. They help newcomers learn the right way to perform their roles.
Challenge Examination

57. A research team believed that an organization’s members would perform better when in a group. They studied how much effort was exerted in a tug of war contest when individuals were by themselves and when the individuals were on a team with others. They were MOST LIKELY to find that ________.
a. individuals exerted the same amount of effort regardless of the situation
b. individuals exerted less effort when they knew they were being watched
c. individuals exerted more effort when in a group
d. individual exerted less effort when in a group

58. Every day his group meets, Mike shows up late, texts on his phone, and doesn’t exert much effort.  Kate is getting angry with Mike’s behavior.  An example of the sucker effect would be if Kate ________.
a. works harder to compensate for Mike
b. resigns from the group
c. reports Mike to the supervisor
d. starts showing up late

59. James Thompson’s “model of group tasks” suggests that as task interdependence within a group ________ the degree and intensity of the interactions between group members who are required to perform the group’s task ________.
a. increases; decrease
b. increases; increase
c. decreases; increase
d. decreases; remains unchanged

60. ________ groups tend to promote cohesiveness.
a. Medium sized
b. Dysfunctional
c. Small
d. Diverse

61. Groups tend to be MOST cohesive when members are ________.
a. coherent
b. homogeneous
c. heterogeneous
d. amalgamated

Challenge Examination

62. Competition between groups is LEAST LIKELY to promote organizational effectiveness when ________.
a. one group competes against another to see which group can maintain the highest quality standards
b. one group becomes more concerned with beating another group than with achieving the organization’s goals
c. groups that are doing especially well receive public recognition
d. groups are given or adopt their own names

63. Sources of functional or divisional organizational power do NOT include ________.
a. visibility
b. centrality
c. ability to control contingencies
d. ability to control and generate resources

64. ________ is how vital or crucial the activities of a function or division are to the operation of the entire organization and the degree to which it is positioned to gain access to important information from other functions.
a. Centrality
b. Contingency
c. Relevance
d. Irreplaceability

65. Jim Bosley is a corporate manager for a large corporation. He has the authority to approve projects of the organization’s subsidiaries. He knows that his PRIMARY source of power is his ________.
a. irreplaceability
b. control over contingencies
c. control over resources
d. referent power

66. According to Pondy’s model, as the parties in the ________ conflict stage assert their views, the significance of the disputed issue is likely to be blown out of proportion.
a. felt
b. latent
c. manifest
d. perceived
Challenge Examination

67. According to Pondy’s model, during the ________ conflict stage, one party decides how to react to or deal with the party that it sees as the source of the conflict and both parties try to hurt each other and thwart each other’s goals.
a. latent
b. felt
c. perceived
d. manifest

68. Every conflict episode leaves a conflict ________ that affects the way both parties perceive and respond to future episodes.
a. outcome
b. residue
c. resolution
d. aftermath

69. Grace is shopping for a computer when a salesman begins telling her why she should choose a certain model.  He is using technical terms that Grace doesn’t understand, so Grace loses interest and leaves.  In the future, the salesman should  ________.
a. change how he encodes the message
b. change how he decodes the message
c. use more jargon
d. use non-verbal communication

70. The ________ provides paths of communication for delicate information, as well as for potential and actual crises.
a. grapevine
b. advice network
c. trust network
d. communication network

71. Encoding is MOST     necessary to communication because it ________.
a. eliminates information distortion
b. entails modifying a message based on who is receiving it
c. provides specialized terminology
d. gives credibility to the message

72. Which of the following is enhanced by nonverbal communication?
a. a text message
b. an in-person meeting
c. a telephone message
d. a company’s annual report
Challenge Examination

73. Personally addressed written communication BEST helps to ________.
a. provide nonverbal cues
b. promote instantaneous feedback
c. speed up communication
d. encourage the receiver to pay attention to it

74. ________ allows a sender to communicate with the largest number of receivers simultaneously.
a. Voicemail
b. Instant messaging
c. Personally addressed written communication
d. Impersonal written communication

75. Organizational members often engage in ________; that is, they search for and choose acceptable responses to opportunities and problems.
a. optimizing
b. rationalizing
c. satisficing
d. sacrificing

76. The only doctor in a small town had a problem. He wanted to see all of the people who needed his care but he did not have enough time in the day to do so. He was especially worried that if he did not see certain patients, they would not be able to afford the doctor in
the next town over. His problem is a(n) ________ one.
a. optimal
b. rational
c. ethical
d. financial

77. Heuristics are best described as ________.
a. helpful and effective in all situations
b. helpful in some situations and dangerous in others
c. harmful and nonproductive in all situations
d. harmful when used in nonprogrammed decision making
Challenge Examination

78. The fact that decisions made by groups are more extreme than decisions made by individuals is LEAST LIKELY associated with ________.
a. the diffusion of responsibility occurs
b. knowing that other group members support the same decision can cause group members to become more confident in their position
c. as a group discusses alternatives, members of the group come up with persuasive arguments to support their favored alternative and the group’s confidence in the chosen alternative increases
d. the diversity found in groups that cannot exist within single individuals

79. ________ can become dysfunctional when individual members become more concerned about winning the battle than in making a good decision.
a. Individual decision-making
b. Programmed decision-making
c. Nonprogrammed decision-making
d. Group decision-making

80. ________ is a spontaneous, participative, decision-making technique that groups use to generate a wide range of alternatives from which to make a decision.
a. Producing
b. Brainstorming
c. Nominal group technique
d. Delphi technique

81. A company uses mass production to manufacture toilet paper. The organization MOST LIKELY ________.
a. has an organic structure
b. has a mechanistic structure
c. uses nonroutine technology
d. carries high task analyzability

82. An example of ________ technology is the services rendered by a small group of auditors hired to evaluate the accuracy of a firm’s financial statements.
a. mediated
b. functional
c. small-batch
d. assembly-line

Challenge Examination

83. ________ technology is based primarily on the use of automated machines that are programmed to perform the same operations time and time again.
a. Process
b. Functional
c. Information
d. Mass-production

84. The principle of the ________ chain of command states that an organization should operate with the fewest levels possible.
a. minimum
b. retractable
c. streamlined
d. hierarchical

85. Top management members do not want a tall organization, so they should ________.
a. follow the principle of maximum chain of command
b. stress the importance of low risk behaviors to employees
c. hire more managers to supervise lower level managers
d. offer training to employees to enable them to make more decisions

86. ________ is the ongoing communication among different people and functions that is necessary for an organization to achieve its goals.
a. Instant messaging
b. Mutual adjustment
c. Divisional alignment
d. Functional integration

87. A company manufactures parts for military aircrafts.  The process requires accuracy and precision, and each job must be done in a certain way to ensure high quality.  An instrumental value of this company would MOST LIKELY be ________.
a. creativity
b. excellence
c. attention to detail
d. risk taking

88. If an organization has a terminal value of ________, it will MOST LIKELY have an instrumental value of ________.
a. excellence; profitability
b. responsibility; creativity
c. conservation; innovation
d. morality; being honest

Challenge Examination

89. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a terminal value of innovativeness?
a. maintaining high standards
b. working hard
c. being creative
d. playing it safe

90. An organization develops ________ to encourage members to adopt certain terminal and instrumental values and to behave in certain ways as they pursue their goals.
a. specific norms
b. regulatory frameworks
c. generalized expectations
d. organizational guidelines

91. Henry Ford said, “Learning together is a beginning.  Keeping together is progress.  Working together is success.”  Based on this, his organization MOST LIKELY had an instrumental value of ________.
a. profitability
b. innovation
c. morality
d. cooperation

92. Which of the following would an innovative company be MOST LIKELY to do that an inert company would not do?
a. promote from within the company
b. cut costs as low as possible
c. abide by the most rigid ethical standards
d. experiment with additional product lines

93. All of the following are common instrumental values in a company with an inert culture EXCEPT ________.
a. laziness
b. noncooperation
c. output restriction
d. entrepreneurship
Challenge Examination

94. According to Hofstede, ________ is the dimension of culture that focuses on the values that govern the relationship between individuals and groups.
a. national ethos
b. power distance
c. individualism versus collectivism
d. achievement versus nurturing orientation

95. In a country with low power distance, the government would MOST LIKELY view programs to equalize wealth amongst all citizens in a(n) _______ manner.
a. indifferent
b. unethical
c. positive
d. negative

96. An organization decided it wanted its members always to be looking for ways to make the organization better through efficiency or product improvement. Employees attended a meeting where the TQM strategy was explained.  When the strategy was evaluated within a month, it was determined to be ineffective.  Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY a reason for the poor evaluation?
a. It was too drastic of a change.
b. The managers did not empower the employees.
c. The strategy can take much longer than one month to be effective.
d. The employees were not behind the change.

97. A(n) ________ typically develops as an organization grows and is a principal source of inertia, especially in large organizations.
a. matrix structure
b. organic structure
c. mechanistic structure
d. hyperbolic structure

98. Organizational change is MOST LIKELY to be resisted ________.
a. if it reinforces group norms
b. by a highly cohesive group
c. if the organizational culture is weak
d. by political coalitions who currently lack power

Challenge Examination

99. Individuals within an organization are LEAST LIKELY to resist change because of  ________.
a. uncertainty
b. force of habit
c. selective perception
d. profit motive

100. A ________ is any activity that is vital to quickly delivering goods or services to customers or that promotes high quality or low cost.
a. function
b. business process
c. production scheme
d. operational method